Understanding API ICP653 Reading 6-Worksheet-03 Part 2

Understanding APIICP653 

Reading 6 Worksheet-03 Part 2 of 2 

My Pre-exam Self Study Notes 

9 th February 2015 

大年初二努力中 

Charlie Chong/ Fion Zhang

Oil Export Terminal 


2016 大年初二努力学习中 ! 


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没事小神仙 


API 653 Exam Administration -- Publications 

Effectivity Sheet FOR: November 2015, March 

2016 and July 2016 

Listed below are the effective editions of the publications required for this 

exam for the date(s) shown above. 

API Recommended Practice 571, Damage Mechanisms Affecting Fixed Equipment in 

the Refining Industry, Second Edition, April 2011 


API 653 Exam Administration -- Publications 

Effectivity Sheet FOR: November 2015, March 

2016 and July 2016 

Listed below are the effective editions of the publications required for this 

exam for the date(s) shown above. 

API Recommended Practice 571, Damage Mechanisms Affecting Fixed Equipment in 

the Refining Industry, Second Edition, April 2011 


ATTENTION: Only the following sections / mechanisms from RP 571 are 

included on the exam: 

Section 3, Definitions Par. 

4.2.7 Brittle Fracture 

4.2.16 Mechanical Fatigue 

4.3.2 Atmospheric Corrosion 

4.3.3 Corrosion Under insulation (CUI) 

4.3.8 Microbiologically Induced Corrosion (MIC) 

4.3.9 Soil Corrosion 

4.3.10 Caustic Corrosion 

4.5.1 Chloride Stress Corrosion Cracking (Cl-SCC) 

4.5.3 Caustic Stress Corrosion Cracking (Caustic Embrittlement) 

5.1.1.10 Sour Water Corrosion (Acidic) 

5.1.1.11 Sulfuric Acid Corrosion 


• API Recommended Practice 575, Inspection of Atmospheric and Low- 

Pressure Storage Tanks, Third Edition, April 2014 

• API Recommended Practice 577 – Welding Inspection and Metallurgy, 

Second Edition, December 2013 

• API Standard 650, Welded Tanks for Oil Storage, Twelfth Edition, March 

2013 with Addendum 1 (September 2014), Errata 1 (July 2013), and 

Errata 2 (December 2014). 

• API Recommended Practice 651, Cathodic Protection of Aboveground 

Petroleum Storage Tanks, Fourth Edition, September 2014. 

• API Recommended Practice 652, Lining of Aboveground Petroleum 

Storage Tank Bottoms, Fourth Edition, September 2014 

• API Standard 653, Tank Inspection, Repair, Alteration, and 

Reconstruction, Fifth Edition, November 2014. 


• American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME), Boiler and Pressure 

Vessel Code, 2013 Edition 

i. ASME Section V, Nondestructive Examination, Articles 1, 2, 6, 7 and 

23 (section SE-797 only) 

ii. Section IX, Welding and Brazing Qualifications (Welding Only) 

See end of this study note for API Official BOK 


http://independent.academia.edu/CharlieChong1 

http://www.yumpu.com/zh/browse/user/charliechong 

http://issuu.com/charlieccchong 


Charlie Chong/ Fion Zhang 

http://greekhouseoffonts.com/

The Magical Book of Tank Inspection ICP 



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Fion Zhang at Shanghai 

9 th February 2016

API-653 SECTION 8 

Q1. When a tank is to be dismantled and reconstucted at another location, 

what size are the roof, shell and bottom plates cut? 

a. Cut the shell plates 8’ by 20’ and the roof & bottom plates 6’ by 18’. 

b. Cut the shell plates 7.5’ by 10’, the roof and bottom plates 6’ by 8’. 

c. Cut all plates a minimum of 7.5 feet wide by 10 feet long. 

d. Cut all plates to any size that are readily transportable to the new site. 

ANS: D 

Q2. If a reconstructed tank’s bottom is to be removed and scrapped and the 

shell to bottom weld is ½ inch, how high above the tank’s bottom would you 

cut the shell plate? 

a. 1” 

b. 3” 

c. ½ ” 

d. 2” 

ANS: A (C?) 


Figure 10.1—Tank Shell and Bottom Cut Locations 


Q3. When a 5/8 inch thick double butt welded tank shell plate (weld width is 

3/4”) is dismantled for reconstruction, how much metal must be removed from 

each side of the weld (measured from the weld center) to remove the HAZ? 

a. 3/4” 

b. 3/8” 

c. 5/8” 

d. 1/2” 

ANS: C (B?) ( ½ weld width or ¼ “ whichever is less) 

Q4. Tanks and their structural attachments shall be welded in accordance 

with the processes specified in: 

a. API Standard 12A and the requirements of API 653. 

b. API Standard 12C and the requirements of API 652. 

c. API Standard 650 and the requirements of API 653. 

d. API Standard 650 and the requirements of API 651. 

ANS: C 


API653: 10.3.3 Shells 

10.3.3.1 Tank shell plates may be dismantled using one of the following 

methods or a combination thereof. 

a) Any shell ring may be dismantled by cutting out existing weld seams and 

the heat affected zone (HAZ) of the weld. For the purpose of this method, the 

minimum HAZ to be removed will be ½ of the weld metal width or 1/4 in., 

whichever is less, on both sides of the weld seam. 

b) Any shell ring ½ in. thick or thinner may be dismantled by cutting through 

the weld without removing the HAZ. 

Note: from the fusion line? 


For the purpose of this method, the minimum HAZ to be removed will be ½ of 

the weld metal width or 1/4 in. (6mm), whichever is less, on both sides of the 

weld seam. 

½ of the weld metal 

width or 1/4 in (6mm) 

whichever is less 


Any shell ring ½ in. thick or thinner may be dismantled by cutting through the 

weld without removing the HAZ. 


Q5. No welding may be performed during the reconstruction of a tank if the 

temperature of the base metal is less than: 

a. 0 degrees F. 

b. 32 degrees F. 

c. 0 degrees C. 

d. 32 degrees C. 

ANS: A 

Q6. On a reconstructed tank, when the temperature of the base metal is 

between 0 degrees F. and 32 degrees F., or the thickness of the tank plate is 

in excess of 1 inch, the base metal within 3 inches of the place where welding 

is to be started shall be heated to a temperature warm to the hand 

(approximately _____ ) before welding. 

a. 12 degrees C. 

b. 24 degrees C. 

c. 70 degrees F. 

d. 140 degrees F. 

ANS: D 


Q7. On a reconstructed tank, no welding of any kind shall be performed when 

the surface of the parts to be welded: 

a. are above 100 degrees C. 

b. are clean and properly prepared. 

c. are wet from rain, snow, or ice. 

d. are properly aligned. 

ANS: C 

Q8. On a reconstructed tank, the maximum undercutting of base metal for 

welded vertical butt joints is: 

a. 1/16 inch. 

b. 1/64 inch. 

c. 1/32 inch. 

d. 1/8 inch. 

ANS:B 


Q9. On a reconstructed tank, the maximum undercutting of base metal for 

welded horizontal butt joints is: 

a. 1/16 inch. 

b. 1/64 inch. 

c. 1/32 inch. 

d. 1/8 inch. 

ANS: C 

Q10. On a reconstructed tank, according to API Standard 653, reinforcement 

of new welds on all butt joints on each side of the plate shall not exceed the 

following: 

10A. For plate thickness < 1/2 inch, the maximum reinforcement thickness for 

vertical joints is: 

a. 1/32 inch 

b. 1/64 inch 

c. 1/16 inch 

d. 3/32 inch 

ANS: D 


10B. For plate thickness < 1/2 inch, the maximum reinforcement thickness for 

horizontal joints is: 

a. 1/32 inch 

b. 1/16 inch 

c. 1/8 inch 

d. 3/32 inch 

ANS: C 


Q11. When reconstructing a tank, according to API Standard 653, 

reinforcement of new welds on all butt joints on each side of the plate shall 

not exceed the following: 

11 A. For plate thickness greater than 1/2" through 1", the maximum 

reinforcement thickness for vertical joints is: 

a. 1/16" 

b. 1/8" 

c. 1/64" 

d. 1/32“ 

ANS: B 

Q11 B. For plate thickness greater than 1/2" through 1", the maximum 

reinforcement thickness for horizontal joints is: 

a. 1/32" 

b. 1/16" 

c. 1/8" 

d. 3/16“ 

ANS:D 


Q12. When reconstructing a tank, according to API Standard 653, 

reinforcement of new welds on all butt joints on each side of the plate shall 

not exceed the following: 

12A. For thickness greater than 1", the maximum reinforcement thickness for 

vertical joints is: 

a. 1/4" 

b. 1/8" 

c. 3/32" 

d. 3/16" 

ANS: D 

12B. For thickness greater than 1", reinforcement thickness for horizontal 

joints is a maximum of: 

a. 1/32" 

b. 1/16" 

c. 1/8" 

d. 1/4“ 

ANS:D 


Q13. During reconstruction of a tank, manually welded tack welds used in the 

assembly of vertical joints of tank shells: 

a. shall not remain in the finished joint. 

b. may remain in the finished joint. 

c. are acceptable provided the Authorized Inspector agrees. 

d. are acceptable in reconstructed tanks. 

ANS: A 

Q14. In the assembly of vertical joints of a reconstructed tank using the 

submerged-arc process, tack welds to be left in place shall be made: 

a. by knowledgeable welders. 

b. by certified tank inspectors. 

c. by qualified welders. 

d. by welders in a workman like manner. 

ANS: C 


Q15. During reconstruction of a tank, if weldable primer coatings are used on 

surfaces to be welded: 

a. they shall be included in the job standards where the brand, formulation 

and maximum thickness will be listed. 

b. they shall be included in welding procedure qualification tests for the brand, 

formulation and maximum thickness of primer applied. 

c. they shall be included in the tank contract and be approved by the tank 

owner and the Authorized Inspector. 

d. they shall be included on the construction drawings with notes requiring 

the Authorized Inspector to PT the first weld pass. 

ANS: B 


Q16. During reconstruction of a tank, the welding of the shell to the bottom 

(except for the door sheet) shall: 

a. be left until the welding of the bottom joints are completed. 

b. be completed before the welding of the bottom joints. 

c. be completed after the welding of bottom joints. 

d. be made at any time before the roof is installed. 

ANS: B 

Q17. During reconstruction of a tank shell with plate thickness 5/8 inch or less, 

misalignment in completed vertical joints shall not exceed: 

a. 3/16 inch. 

b. 1/8 inch. 

c. 1/4 inch. 

d. 1/16 inch. 

ANS: D 


Q18. During reconstruction of a tank shell with plate thickness exceeding 5/8 

inch, misalignment in completed vertical joints shall not exceed: 

a. 20% of the plate thickness, with a maximum of 3/16". 

b. 15% of the plate thickness, with a maximum of 1/8". 

c. 10% of the plate thickness, with a maximum of 1/8". 

d. 5% of the plate thickness, with a maximum of 1/16". 

ANS: C 

Q19. In reconstructing a tank, how much preheat is required for making 

horizontal and vertical welds in tank shells constructed of material over 1.5 

inches thick? 

a. 50 degrees F. 

b. 140 degrees F. 

c. 75 degrees F. 

d. 200 degrees F. 

ANS: D 


Q20. During reconstruction of a tank, for horizontal and vertical joints in tank 

shell courses constructed of material over 1.5 inches thick, the maximum 

thickness of each weld pass shall not be over: 

a. 1/4" 

b. 3/4" 

c. 3/16" 

d. 1/2" 

ANS: B 

Q21. When reconstructing a tank, the maximum out-of-plumbness of the top 

of the shell relative to the bottom of the shell shall not exceed: 

a. 1/100 of the total tank height, with a maximum of 5 inches. 

b. 1/50 of the total tank height, with a maximum of 5 inches. 

c. 1/100 of the total tank height, with a maximum of 6 inches. 

d. 1/50 of the total tank height, with a maximum of 6 inches. 

ANS: A 


Q22. A reconstructed tank with a diameter of 100 feet and a height of 40 feet 

is checked for plumbness. A plumb bob is dropped from the top outside edge 

of the tank shell. A measurement from the end of the plumb bob to the bottom 

outside edge of the tank shell reveals that the tank will not meet the out-of 

plumbness criteria of API Standard 653. What measurement was obtained? 

a. A measurement greater than 0.4" was obtained. 

b. A measurement greater than 4.2" was obtained. 

c. A measurement greater than 4.8" was obtained. 

d. A measurement greater than 1.2" was obtained. 

ANS: C 


Q23. A reconstructed tank with a height of 36 feet and a diameter of 100 feet 

is checked for out-of-plumbness. Calculate the maximum out-of-plumbness 

acceptable. 

a. 5.00" 

b. 5.32" 

c. 4.00" 

d. 4.32" 

ANS: D 

Q24. A reconstructed tank, 100 feet in diameter and 40 feet high is checked 

for radius tolerance at a point 6 feet above the shell to bottom weld. The 

permissible radius tolerance is: 

a. 1.50" + 

b. 2.25" + 

c. 3.00" + 

d. 3.75" + 

ANS:B 


Q25. When peaking is measured on a reconstructed tank with a horizontal 

sweep board, it shall not exceed: 

a. 3/4" 

b. 1/4" 

c. 1/2" 

d. 1" 

ANS: C (Banding 1” max) 

Q26. When peaking is measured on a reconstructed tank with a horizontal 

sweep board, what size board is used? 

a. 48" long board cut to the inside radius of the tank. 

b. 36" long board cut to the true inside radius of the tank. 

c. 48" long board cut to the true outside radius of the tank. 

d. 36" long board cut to the true outside radius of the tank. 

ANS:D 

API653: 10.5.4 Peaking 

With a horizontal sweep board 36-in. long, peaking shall not exceed ½ in. The 

sweep board shall be made to the true outside radius of the tank. 


Q27. Banding, when measured on a reconstructed tank, is measured with a 

vertical sweep board _____ long. 

a. 24" 

b. 42" 

c. 36" 

d. 48“ 

ANS: C 


API-653 ANSWER KEY 



Q1. When NDT examinations are to be performed: 

a. acceptance criteria from the latest edition of ASNT SNT-TC-1A must be 

followed. 

b. an understanding between the performers and the Inspector (s) is required. 

c. oral agreements must be finalized between the owner-user and the 

performers. 

d. procedures, qualifications and acceptance criteria shall be prepared per 

API 650 & 653. 

ANS: D 

Q2. Personnel performing nondestructive examinations of API 653 tanks shall 

be qualified: 

a. in accordance with API Standard 650 and supplemental requirements of 

API 653. 

b. in accordance with API Code 510 and supplemental ASTM requirements. 

c. in accordance with API 651 and supplemental requirements of API 652. 

d. in accordance with API 941 and supplemental requirements of API 945. 

ANS: A 


Q3. The area of a tank shell in the immediate area of an addition of a 

reinforcing plate to an existing penetration, or when hot tapping: 

a. shall be liquid penetrant checked. 

b. shall be radiographed. 

c. shall be ultrasonically checked. 

d. shall be magnetic particle checked. 

ANS: C 

Q4. What are you looking for when you check the immediate area of an 

addition of a reinforcing plate to an existing penetration? 

a. You are searching the area for cracks. 

b. You are looking for possible laminations. 

c. You are trying to find possible exterior scale. 

d. You are endeavoring to satisfy API 651 requirements. 

ANS: B 


Q5. When existing attachment welds of existing reinforcing plates are 

removed from a tank shell, cavities resulting from gouging or grinding 

operations shall be: 

a. examined by radiograph and ultrasonic or eddy current methods. 

b. examined by ultrasonic and vacuum box or diesel oil methods. 

c. examined by radiograph and tracer gas or diesel oil methods. 

d. examined by visual and magnetic particle or liquid penetrant methods. 

ANS: D 

Q6. Completed welds attaching nozzle neck to shell, and reinforcing plate to 

shell and to nozzle neck: 

a. shall be examined by MT or PT testing methods. 

b. shall be examined by VT or RT testing methods. 

c. shall be examined by VT or UT testing methods. 

d. shall be examined by ET or UT testing methods. 

ANS: A 


Q7. Completed welds of stress relieved assemblies of shell penetrations shall 

be examined by visual and magnetic particle or liquid penetrant methods: 

a. after stress relief and after the hydrostatic test. 

b. before stress relief and after stress relief. 

c. after stress relief, but before hydrostatic test. 

d. before stress relief and before hydrostatic test. 

ANS: C 

Q8. For shell penetrations installed using insert plates, the completed butt 

welds between the insert plate and the shell plate: 

a. shall be fully radiographed. 

b. shall be fully visually inspected. 

c. shall be fully magnetic particle inspected. 

d. shall be fully liquid penetrant inspected. 

ANS:A 


Q9. Completed repairs of butt welds shall be examined over: 

a. their full length by a competent inspector. 

b. their full length by RT or UT methods. 

c. their full width by RT or UT methods. 

d. their full length by the appropriate Level II Inspector. 

ANS: B 

Q10. When repairs to fillet welds are complete, they must be examined over: 

a. their full length by an appropriate NDE method. 

b. 50% of their length by an appropriate NDE method. 

c. their full width by an appropriate NDE method. 

d. their full width by a competent person. 

ANS: A 


Q11. Completed welds of temporary or new permanent attachments made to 

shells of API Standard 650 Group IV, IVA, V, or VI materials shall be 

examined by _____ and MT (or at the option of the purchaser by 

PT methods). 

a. radiography 

b. eddy current 

c. visual 

d. a vacuum box 

ANS: C 

Q12. An inspector is responsible for inspecting a new weld that attaches an 

existing shell plate to a new replacement shell plate. The plate thickness of 

the plates are 1.0625 inches thick. The weld is a double butt-weld. How would 

you examine the back gouged surface of the root and final pass? 

a. UT or VT 

b. MT or PT 

c. RT or PT 

d. ET or RT 

ANS: B 


Q13. An inspector is responsible for inspecting a new shell plate that is joined 

to another new shell plate. What inspection method(s) is/are required by API 

653. 

a. UT 

b. VT 

c. PT 

d. RT 

ANS: D 

Q14. When using diesel oil to test a first pass shell-to-bottom weld, what is 

the minimum time the oil shall be 

allowed to stand? 

a. 4 hours. 

b. 3 hours. 

c. 2 hours. 

d. 1 hour. 

ANS:A 


Q15. When using diesel oil to test a first pass shell-to-bottom weld, what is 

the "preferred time" for the oil to stand on the weld? 

a. 3 hours. 

b. overnight. 

c. 24 hours. 

d. 4 hours. 

ANS: B 

Q16. An inspector is responsible for inspecting an existing shell-to-bottom 

weld prior to installing a welded-on lap patch. What method is called for by 

API 653? 

a. ET and RT or NRT 

b. PT and VT or LT 

c. UT and MT or PT 

d. VT and MT or PT 

ANS: D 


Q17. When an existing shell-to-bottom weld is inspected prior to installing a 

welded-on lap patch that measures 18 inches on the shell side, what distance 

along the existing weld would you inspect to satisfy the requirements of API 

653? 

a. 20 inches 

b. 24 inches 

c. 18 inches 

d. 30 inches 

ANS: D 

Q18. If the owner-user of a tank has reviewed and approved _________ to 

test the integrity of welded bottom joints (for their entire length), it may be 

used in place of a vacuum box and solution film. 

a. gas and a combustible gas detector 

b. a suitable vapor and a oxygen detector 

c. a liquid hydrocarbon and a detector 

d. a suitable tracer gas and compatible detector 

ANS: D 


Q19. What method of inspection must be employed over the full length of the 

weld attaching a welded-on patch plate to a tank bottom? 

a. PT 

b. MT 

c. VT 

d. UT 

ANS:C 

Q20. If a welded-on patch plate is placed in the critical zone of a tank bottom, 

what methods of inspection shall be performed over its full length? 

a. VT & MT or PT 

b. PT & UT or VT 

c. MT & ET or UT 

d. UT & PT or MT 

ANS:A 


Q21. An owner-user has a six vertical shell joint repaired in one of his tanks 

(lack of penetration was found over 2” to 6” runs in each joint). How many 

radiographs would you require? 

a. twelve. 

b. six. 

c. four. 

d. three. 

ANS: B 

Q22. A repair is made on an existing tank by replacing the weld for a length of 

100 feet on one of the shell rings. The upper horizontal weld of this 

replacement intersects with four existing vertical welds. In the 

upper horizontal shell joint of this replacement, how many total radiographs 

would be required? 

a. six. 

b. two. 

c. twelve. 

d. four. 

ANS: A 


Q23. A reconstructed tank has 88 junctions of new welds over existing weld 

seams. How many radiographs are required? 

a. 88 

b. 30 

c. 44 

d. 22 

ANS: D 

Q24. What is the minimum number of radiographs required, when a new or 

replacement circular insert plate is 

butt welded to the shell? 

a. a minimum of two radiographs. 

b. a minimum of three radiographs. 

c. a minimum of one radiograph. 

d. a minimum of four radiographs. 

ANS: C 


Q25. When radiographing joints, weld intersections, etc., on repaired or 

reconstructed tanks, according to API Standard 653, the minimum diagnostic 

length of each radiograph shall be: 

a. four inches. 

b. eight inches. 

c. six inches. 

d. seventeen inches. 

ANS: C 

Q26. Each radiograph film of a repaired weld or a weld on a reconstructed 

tank shall show: 

a. an identification of the inspector. 

b. an identification of the welder or welders making the weld. 

c. an identification showing the time the radiograph was made. 

d. a step gage identifying the thickness of the weld. 

ANS: B 


Q27. Radiographs and radiograph records of all repaired welds shall be: 

a. marked as complete. 

b. marked API 653 Repair. 

c. marked with the letter "R". 

d. marked with the symbol of the repair firm. 

ANS: C 

Q28. A reconstructed tank and any tank that has undergone major repairs or 

major alterations shall have a full hydrostatic test, held for: 

a. 18 hours. 

b. 24 hours. 

c. 12 hours. 

d. 8 hours. 

ANS: B 




Re-Read Radiography Testing 





a. twelve. 

b. six. 

c. four. 

d. three. 

ANS: B 



a. 88 

b. 30 

c. 44 

d. 22 

ANS: D 


API653: 12.2 Radiographs 

12.2.1 Number and Location of Radiographs 

The number and location of radiographs of the full penetration shell plate to 

shell plate welds shall be in accordance with API 650, Section 8.1.2 and the 

following additional requirements: 

12.2.1.1 For vertical joints: 

a) new replacement shell plates to new shell plates, no additional 

radiographs required, other than those required by API 650, Section 

8.1.2.2 and Figure 8-1 for new construction; 

b) new replacement shell plates to existing shell plates, one additional 

radiograph shall be taken in each joint; 

c) repaired joints in existing shell plates shall have one additional radiograph 

taken in each joint. 


API650: Figure 8.1—Radiographic Requirements for Tank Shells 



new replacement shell plates to new shell plates, no additional radiographs 

required, other than those required by API 650, Section 8.1.2.2 and Figure 8- 

1 for new construction; 

Additional vertical RT 



new replacement shell plates to existing shell plates, one additional 





repaired joints in existing shell plates shall have one additional radiograph 







a. twelve. 

b. six. 

c. four. 

d. three. 

ANS: B (6+additional 6?) 

API653: 12.2.1.1 For vertical joints: 









12.2.1.2 For horizontal joints: 





radiograph for each 50 ft of repaired horizontal weld; 


taken for each 50 ft of repaired horizontal weld. 

12.2.1.3 For intersections of vertical and horizontal joints: 


radiographs required, other than those required by API 650, Section 8.1.2 

and Figure 8-1 for new construction; 

b) new replacement shell plates to existing shell plates, each intersection 

shall be radiographed; 

c) all repaired intersections in existing shell plates shall be radiographed. 


12.2.1.2 For horizontal joints: 


radiograph for each 50 ft of repaired horizontal weld; 


taken for each 50 ft of repaired horizontal weld.. 

one additional radiograph for each 50 ft of repaired 

Additional RT at horizontal 

weld at every 50 feet. 


12.2.1.3 For intersections of vertical and horizontal joints: 




Additional intersection 

RT 


Vertical/ Horizontal / Intersection additional RT 

one additional radiograph for each 50 ft of repaired 

Additonal vertical RT 

Additional RT at horizontal weld at every 50 feet. 

Additional intersection RT 


Vertical/ Horizontal / Intersection additional RT 

one additional radiograph 

for each 50 ft of repaired 

Additonal vertical RT 

Additional RT at horizontal weld at every 50 feet. 

Additional intersection RT 




a. 88 

b. 30 

c. 44 

d. 22 

ANS: D (A?) 

API653: 12.2.1.3 For intersections of vertical and horizontal joints: 


radiographs required, other than those required by API 650, Section 8.1.2 

and Figure 8-1 for new construction; 





12.2.1.4 For reconstructed tanks, each butt-welded annular plate joint shall be 

radiographed in accordance with 

API 650, Section 8.1.2.9. 

12.2.1.5 For reconstructed tanks, radiographic examination is required for 25 

% of all junctions of new welds over 

existing seams. 

The owner/operator shall, with the consent of the contractor, determine the 

extent of further examination and repair 

that may be required. 

Any further examination or repair of existing welds will be handled by 

contractual agreement between the owner/ 

operator and tank reconstruction contractor. 

12.2.1.6 New and replaced shell plate and door sheet welds shall be 

radiographed. All junctions between repair and 

existing welds shall be radiographed. If defects are found, 100 % radiography 

shall be performed on the repaired weld. 


12.2.1.6.1 For circular replacement plates, a minimum of one radiograph shall 

be taken regardless of thickness. 

When the circular replacement plate is located in a shell plate with thickness 

exceeding 1 in., the weld shall be fully 

radiographed. 

12.2.1.6.2 For square and rectangular replacement plates, at least one 

radiograph shall be taken in a vertical joint, 

and at least one in a horizontal joint, and one in each corner. When the 

square or rectangular replacement plate is 

located in a shell plate with thickness exceeding 1 in., the vertical joints shall 

be fully radiographed. 

12.2.1.7 The minimum diagnostic length of each radiograph shall be 6 in. 

12.2.1.8 For penetrations installed using insert plates as described in 9.8.6, 

the completed butt welds between the 

insert plate and the shell plate shall be fully radiographed. 


12.2.2 Acceptance Criteria for Existing Shell Plate to Shell Plate Welds 

If the radiograph of an intersection between a new and old weld detects 

unacceptable welds by the current applicable 

standard, the existing welds shall be: 

a) evaluated according to the as-built standard, or 

b) evaluated using fitness-for-service assessment, or 

c) repaired in accordance with 9.6. 


12.2.3 Marking and Identification of Radiographs 

12.2.3.1 Each film shall show an identification of the welder(s) making the 

weld. A weld map showing location of 

welds, weld number, radiograph number, welder identification, and grading of 

each weld is an acceptable alternative 

to this requirement. 

12.2.3.2 Radiographs and radiograph records of all repaired welds shall be 

marked with the letter “R.” 


End of Re-Read Radiography Testing 



Q1. Tanks reconstructed in accordance with API 653, shall be identified by: 

a. a name plate as shown in API Standard 650. 

b. a metal stenciled marking on the shell. 

c. a painted marking on the shell. 

d. a corrosion-resistant metal nameplate per API 653. 

ANS: D 

Q2. The letters and numerals of the API 653 nameplate shall be embossed, 

engraved, or stamped on a corrosion-resistant plate in letters and numerals 

not less than _______ high. 

a. 1/16 inch 

b. 3/32 inch 

c. 1/8 inch 

d. 5/32 inch 

ANS: D 


Q3. The API 650 nameplate on a tank that is altered or reconstructed 

according to API 653: 

a. shall be left attached to the tank. 

b. shall be removed completely. 

c. shall be removed and the information on it placed on the API 653 

nameplate. 

d. shall have the API 653 nameplate affixed over it. 

ANS: A 

Q4. The API 653 nameplate shall be attached to the tank shell: 

a. adjacent to the stairway. 

b. adjacent to the existing nameplate. 

c. on the side nearest an access road. 

d. adjacent to the doorsheet. 

ANS: B 


Q5. Radiographs for API 653 tanks shall be kept for: 

a. for a minimum of five years. 

b. at least 3 months after the tank is constructed. 

c. the time agreed on by the constructor and the owner-user. 

d. one year. 

ANS: D 




API RP-575 PRACTICE QUESTIONS 

Q1. The simplest type of atmospheric storage tank is the: 

a. umbrella-roof tank. 

b. dome-roof tank. 

c. cone-roof tank. 

d. flat-roof tank. 

ANS: C 

Q2. The simplest type of floating-roof tank is the: 

a. annular-pontoon type. 

b. pan type. 

c. double-deck type. 

d. internal plastic sandwich panel roof type. 

ANS: B 


Q3. Cone-roof tanks can reach ________ in diameter and ______ in height. 

a. 300 feet, 64 feet 

b. 400 meters, 70 meters 

c. 300 yards, 64 yards 

d. 400 mm, 70 mm 

ANS: A 

Q4. Large diameter cone-roof tanks usually are supported by: 

a. external structural members. 

b. internal structural members. 

c. internal floats or pontoons. 

d. external floats or pontoons. 

ANS: B 


Q5. Another type of tank is one with a fixed roof plus an interior pan floating 

roof. The fixed roof is usually a _______. 

a. pyramid 

b. cone 

c. cylinder 

d. dome 

ANS: B 

Q6. Atmospheric storage tanks are generally inspected to determine the: 

a. amount of product they will hold and the maximum fill height. 

b. physical condition, rate of corrosion, and cause of deterioration 

c. type product, amount of product, and the rate of filling. 

d. condition of the bottom, type product, and the type of roof. 

ANS: B 


Q7. The prime cause of deterioration of steel storage tanks is: 

a. product. 

b. corrosion. 

c. water. 

d. air. 

ANS: B 

Q8. If you find cinders present in the pad of a tank, which of the following 

would you suspect? 

a. It is a possible source of corrosion if sulfur compounds and moisture is 

present. 

b. It makes a very good foundation for a tank and settlement should not be a 

problem. 

c. It protects the tank bottom from corrosion and no external problems should 

exist. 

d. It is a possible source of electrolytic corrosion and should be investigated. 

ANS:A 


Q9. During the inspection of a tank, a section of the bottom is removed. 

Several globs of clay is found in the pad. Which of the following would you 

suspect? 

a. Clay indicates a stable pad. The contact areas on the bottom will be free of 

corrosion. 

b. Sulfur corrosion could be present. The underside of the bottom must be 

checked. 

c. Pitting corrosion could exist at each point of contact (electrolytic corrosion). 

d. Clay stops water contact with the bottom. The contact areas will be 

corrosion free. 

ANS: C 

Q10. A tank that is supported above grade has some of its bottom exposed, 

i.e., saddle supports on a horizontal tank. As an inspector, what would you 

do to prevent possible bottom corrosion? 

a. The area between the saddles and tank should be inspected every 5 years 

b. A steel plate should be placed between the saddle or pier and the tank 

bottom. 

c. The tank bottom and the piers and saddles should be painted 

d. The saddles or piers should be sealed to prevent moisture accumulation & 

corrosion. ANS: D 


Q11. During an external inspection of a tank, the inspector notices that the 

soil is at or just above the grade line of the tank on the south side. What 

should he do? 

a. Require removal of soil & check the tank shell in the area for corrosion. 

b. Nothing is required unless the soil is found on the north side of the tank. 

c. Write an item to check the area when the tank is next internally inspected. 

d. Remove soil in selected spots and check for corrosion. If none found, 

ignore. 

ANS: A 

Q12. A riveted tank in a humid environment is located adjacent to a series of 

heaters that burn high sulfur fuel gas. The prevailing winds cause the heater 

gases to contact the tank often. What type of problem would you suspect? 

a. Dezincification. 

b. Atmospheric corrosion-damage to coating. 

c. Stress corrosion cracking. 

d. Intergranular corrosion. 

ANS: B 


Q13. The occurrence of internal corrosion of a storage tank depends on the 

________ of the tank and the __________ of construction. 

a. treatment, time 

b. test water, date 

c. contents, material 

d. inspection, mode 

ANS: C 

Q14. Internal corrosion of an atmospheric storage tank in the vapor zone is 

usually caused by: 

a. hydrogen sulfide vapor, water vapor, or oxygen, or a combination of all 

three. 

b. hydrogen vapor, nitrogen, or oil vapor, or a combination of all three. 

c. oil vapor, helium vapor, nitrogen vapor, or a combination of all three. 

d. water, nitrogen vapor, oil vapor, or a combination of all three. 

ANS: A 


Q15. Internal corrosion of an atmospheric storage tank in the area covered by 

stored liquid, corrosion is most commonly caused by: 

a. hydrogen sulfide vapor, water vapor, or oxygen, or a combination of all 

three. 

b. acid salts, hydrogen sulfide, or other sulfur compounds. 

c. water, hydrogen, nitrogen, or a combination of all three. 

d. hydrogen, helium, nitrogen, or water. 

ANS: B 

Q16. While internally inspecting the shell of an atmospheric storage tank the 

inspector shines his flashlight approximately parallel with the shell surface. 

He notices shadows which he at first thinks are pits. When he checks closer, 

he finds that they are small blisters. What type of attack would cause the 

blisters? 

a. Hydrogen blistering. 

b. Caustic embrittlement. 

c. Graphitic corrosion. 

d. Electrolytic corrosion. 

ANS: A 


Q17. During an external inspection of an atmospheric storage tank, an 

inspector finds an indication of a leak in the shell. What is the most likely sign 

that he found? 

a. A hissing sound that indicated a leak. 

b. A slight buckle or bulge in the tank shell. 

c. Discoloration or absence of the paint in area below leak. 

d. A thin reading of his ultrasonic thickness gage. 

ANS: C 

Q18. Where is one of the most likely points and one of the potentially most 

critical points for a crack to occur in a large storage tank? 

a. The horizontal weld of the first shell course to the second shell course. 

b. The lower shell nozzle welds. 

c. The lower shell to sketch plate or annular plate weld. 

d. The bottom door sheet weld. 

ANS: C 


Q19. What type of failure is characterized by sudden loss of tank contents 

and extensive damage to equipment in the vicinity of the tank (little or no loss 

of metal thickness throughout the tank. 

a. Atmospheric corrosion. 

b. Graphitic corrosion. 

c. Brittle Fracture. 

d. Acidic attack. 

ANS: C 

Q20. What is of prime importance in controlling the settlement of an 

aboveground storage tank? 

a. Use floor plates at least 5/8” thick. 

b. Hire a reputable contractor. 

c. Elevations of the tank bottom should be taken before and after tank 

construction. 

d. A proper foundation must be provided. 

ANS: D 


Q21. What would be the expected problem encountered with a water draw off 

on a floating roof tank if an elbow or the pipe develops a leak? 

a. The check valve in the water draw off line will prevent loss of product. 

b. No problem will occur if the outlet valve is shut off. 

c. The leak will allow product to escape or possible water to leak into the 

product. 

d. The leak will contaminate the product in the tank. 

ANS: C 

Q22. If a pan type floating roof has a plugged water draw off, what could be 

the most likely consequence? 

a. The product in the tank may be contaminated. 

b. The roof could turn and possibly have its movements restricted. 

c. The roof could sink during or after a rain. 

d. The tank’s floats could leak. 

ANS: C 


Q23. After all required permits are obtained for an internal inspection of a tank, 

what are the first checks an inspector makes prior to entering? 

a. Check the pressure vacuum valves on the tanks roof. 

b. Make sure the water draw off valve is open. 

c. Check for signs of leaks on the tanks exterior. 

d. Make a visual inspection of overhead parts and roof before entering. 

ANS: D 

Q24. Who should be informed when personnel are working on the inside of a 

tank? 

a. The fire department should be notified. 

b. The jurisdiction should be informed. 

c. Personnel working in the vicinity of the tank. 

d. The plant manager should be informed. 

ANS: C 


Q25. Prior to conducting internal or external inspections, the inspector should: 

a. notify the jurisdiction that the tank is to be inspected. 

b. thoroughly review the inspection records of the tank. 

c. check with the maintenance personnel to make sure they are ready to work 

the tank. 

d. call for the safety department to check that the correct blinds are available. 

ANS: B 

Q26. The condition of anchor bolts can sometimes be determined by visual 

inspection. Name three other methods of assessing the condition of anchor 

bolts. 

a. Wire brushing, abrasive blasting, breaking out concrets. 

b. AE, ET, and VT 

c. PT, MT, and RT. 

d. Hammer test, remove nuts, and UT. 

ANS: D 


Q27. If an inspector finds a low area in a platform that holds water. What is 

the quickest solution to this problem? 

a. Renew the floor plate. 

b. Drill a small drain hole in the area. 

c. Put a protective coating in the area. 

d. Jack-up the low spot. 

ANS: B 

Q28. All types of foundations should be checked for: 

a. composition. 

b. settlement with a surveyor’s level. 

c. evidence of overheating. 

d. temperature. 

ANS: B 


Q29. Name three ways to check for wood rot of any wooden supports for 

small tanks or wooden walkways etc. 

a. hammer, scraper, and ice pick. 

b. calipers, rules, and magnifying glass. 

c. camera, pit gage, and square. 

d. straightedge, square, and steel rule. 

ANS: A 

Q30. An inspector is checking the tank nozzles on the outside of a tank. He 

notices a pipe off one of the 

nozzles enters the ground directly adjacent to the tank. What should he do? 

a. Call the operation supervisor and tell him there may be a problem. 

b. Nothing. API 653 does not cover this area. 

c. Remove soil from point where pipe enters the ground. Check for external 

corrosion. 

d. Call for a API 570 inspector to check the pipe. 

ANS: C 


Q31. Ground connections on tanks should be visually checked for corrosion 

at the point where they enter the earth and at the mechanical connection to 

the tank. If any doubt exists about the condition of the ground, its resistance 

can be checked. The total resistance from the tank to earth should not exceed 

approximately ________. 

a. 25 volts 

b. 25 amps 

c. 25 watts 

d. 25 ohms 

ANS: D 

Q32. Paint blisters (film coating blisters) most often occurs: 

a. on the roof and on the side of the tank receiving the most sunlight. 

b. on the north side of the tank. 

c. on the windward side of the tank. 

d. on the leeward side of the tank. 

ANS:A 


Q33. When checking an insulated tank, careful inspection should be made 

around all nozzles and around the saddles of horizontal tanks. A few samples 

may also be removed for checking. These samples should be taken from: 

a. the leeward side of the tank. 

b. the north side of the tank. 

c. the roof of the tank. 

d. the shaded side of the tank. 

ANS: D 

Q34. If caustic is stored in a tank, the tank should be checked for evidence of 

damage from: 

a. Possible cracks caused by caustic embrittlement. 

b. Blisters from hydrogen attack. 

c. Acidic concentration cell corrosion (or crevice corrosion). 

d. Dezincification. 

ANS: A 


Q35. A storage tank is used to store a product that must be kept warm (150+ 

degrees F). The product has a high concentration of caustic and stress 

corrosion cracking is suspected because of caustic embrittlement. Where 

would you look for cracks? 

a. Check the tank manways and door sheets. 

b. Check the upper shell welds because the warm product will rise. 

c. Check around connections for the internal heating units or coils. 

d. Check around the tank drawoff nozzles. 

ANS: C 

Q36. If a fixed cone roof of a tank in full (no pumping in or out) is suspected of 

being extremely thin, what precaution should an inspector take to facilitate his 

inspection (beside using safety belts with attachments). 

a. Use a life preserver in case the roof gives way. 

b. Use planks (or plywood sheeting) to span at least two roof rafters. 

c. Condemn the roof without inspecting. 

d. Call for maintenance to furnish a crane with a 150 feet boom. 

ANS: B 


Q37. Flame arrester should be opened and the screens or grids should be 

visually inspected for cleanliness and corrosion at what interval? 

a. The interval for inspection should be no longer than 12 months. 

b. The interval for inspection should be appropriate for each case. 

c. The interval for inspection should be every 6 months. 

d. The interval for inspection should be every 18 months. 

ANS: B 

Q38. What occasionally plugs tank flame arrestors (and pressure vacuum 

valves). 

a. Bees and mud daubers. 

b. Tank contents. 

c. Condensed heavy vapors. 

d. Lunch bags from workers. 

ANS: A 


Q39. What are common problems found with pressure-vacuum vents and 

breather valves? 

a. Corrosion of the tank roof and nozzle that the PV vents and breathers are 

attached. 

b. Plugging of the discharge side screen and build up of solids on the pallets. 

c. Painters failure to uncover valves after painting the tank roof. 

d. Disabled PV vents and breathers due to internal pressure in the tank. 

ANS: B 

Q40. Ultrasonic thickness measurements is the usually method for 

determining the thickness of a tank roof. What is an alternate method? 

a. Magnetic Particle Testing. 

b. Hammer Testing. 

c. Dye Penetrant testing. 

d. Eddy Current Testing. 

ANS: B 


Q41. Roof drains on floating roof tanks (including the joints) are tested for 

tightness by pressure testing with water. Which of the tests listed below is 

recommended by API RP 575? 

a. First test at 30 psig for 1/2 hour, then drop to 5 psig for a 1/2 hour. 

b. First test at 225 psig for 1/2 hour, then drop to 150 psig for a 1/2 hour. 

c. First test at 150 psig for 1/2 hour, then drop to 100 psig for a 1/2 hour. 

d. First test at 10 psig for 1/2 hour, then drop to 5 psig for a 1/2 hour. 

ANS: A 

Q42. Name three locations in which internal corrosion will most likely be 

found in a tank. 

a. Half way up the tank, northside of the tank, and center of tank bottom. 

b. Pressure/vacuum vents, roof manways, and roof rafters. 

c. Tank heaters, door sheets, and draw off nozzles. 

d. Vapor space, the liquid-level line, and bottom. 

ANS: D 


Q43. Broken seal hangers on floating roof tanks can cause what type problem? 

a. An increase in corrosion in the adjacent areas. 

b. No problem other than partial loss of sealing. 

c. Grooving or abrasive wear on the tank shell. 

d. A possible crack in the tank shell. 

ANS: C 

Q44. What type of problem would you expect to find around a riveted seam of 

a tank bottom that has an agitator near it and weak acid in the product. 

a. Caustic Embrittlement. 

b. Hydrogen Blistering. 

c. Corrosion-Erosion 

d. Graphic Corrosion. 

ANS: C 


Q45. When statistical methods are used for assessing the probable condition 

of a tank bottom, what controls the number of UT measurement taken. 

a. The time the tank will be out of service. 

b. The size of the tank and the degree of underside corrosion found. 

c. The surface condition of the tank bottom plates and the pattern of readings. 

d. The amount of hammer testing and the experience of the operator. 

ANS: B 

Q46. What size coupon is recommended for removal from a tank bottom to 

check for underside corrosion? 

a. Twenty four inch square. 

b. At least 12” in the least dimension. 

c. Six inch square. 

d. Rectangle Eight inches by four inches. 

ANS: B 


Q47. Some tanks may have a bottom angle between the shell and the bottom. 

Where should you check for cracks? 

a. The shell adjacent to any welded butt joints. 

b. The floor at the toe of the angle adjacent to floor joints. 

c. The corner of the angle. 

d. The angle near any large manway or nozzle. 

ANS: A 

Q48. A method for checking for weld leaks in the bottom and in the shell is: 

a. Ultrasonic sound instruments. 

b. Use of a vacuum box. 

c. Hammer testing. 

d. Magnetic particle testing. 

ANS: B 


Q49. When a temporary dam or seal is built around the outside of a tank; the 

internal joints are coated with a soap solution; and air is injected under the 

bottom, what is the maximum air pressure used? 

a. 3 inches of water 

b. 3 psi 

c. 3 psf 

d. 3 pascals 

ANS:A 

Q50. What is the test medium ordinarily used normal to test atmospheric 

storage tanks? 

a. air 

b. heavy water 

c. product 

d. Water 

ANS: D 


RP-575 ANSWER KEY 


API-2015 PRACTICE QUESTIONS 

Q1. API Standard 2015 provides safety practices for preparing, emptying, 

isolating, ventilating, atmospheric testing, cleaning, entry, hot work, and 

recommissioning activities in, on, and around atmospheric and low-pressure 

_____ that have contained flammable, combustible, or toxic materials. 

a. aboveground storage bins 

b. belowground storage tanks 

c. belowground storage vessels 

d. aboveground storage tanks 

ANS: D 

Q2. API Standard 2015 applies to_________ tanks used in all sectors of the 

petroleum and petrochemical industry, including crude oil and gas production, 

refineries, petrochemical plants, and terminals. 

a. moveable 

b. stationary 

c. transportable 

d. high-pressure 

ANS: B 


Q3. API Standard 2015 does not function as a substitute for review of 

applicable regulations or __________ guidelines. 

a. Company 

b. OSHA 

c. API 

d. State or Federal 

ANS: A 

Q4. Blanking or blinding means the_______________ of a pipe, line, or duct 

by the fastening of a solid plate that completely covers the bore and is 

capable of withstanding the maximum pressure of the closure with no leakage 

beyond the plate. 

a. closure 

b. partial closure 

c. limiting access 

d. absolute closure 

ANS: D 


Q5. One definition of a confined space is a space that: 

a. has limited or restricted means for entry or exit. 

b. is small enough that an employee can bodily enter. 

c. is designed for continuous employee occupancy. 

d. is configured so that an employee cannot bodily enter. 

ANS: A 

Q6. Entry means the action by which a person passes through an opening 

into a permit-required confined space. An entry is considered to have 

occurred when: 

a. the entrant is on the platform outside the manway of a vessel. 

b. the operator signs the safework permit. 

c. a part of the entrants body breaks the plane 

d. the entrant signs the safework permit. 

ANS: C 


Q7. External floating-roof tanks are cylindrical vessels: 

a. that have both a fixed roof over the top of the tank and a floating deck that 

rests on the liquid stock surface. 

b. that have a roof that floats on the surface of the liquid stock and does not 

have a fixed roof over the top of the tank. 

c. that have bottom that floats on the surface of the liquid stock and does not 

have a fixed roof over the top of the tank. 

d. that have a cone or hemispherical top and a floating deck that rests on the 

liquid stock surface. 

ANS: B 

Q8. Oxygen deficient atmosphere means an atmosphere containing less than 

_____ oxygen by volume. 

a. 23.5% 

b. 19.5% 

c. 16.5% 

d. 12.5% 

ANS: B 


Q9. Oxygen enriched atmosphere means an atmosphere containing more 

than _____ oxygen by volume. 

a. 25.5% 

b. 23.5% 

c. 19.5% 

d. 16.5% 

ANS: B 

Q10. Pyrophoric designates a material that may: 

a. be toxic when exposed to air. 

b. spontaneously ignite upon exposure to air. 

c. produce sour vapors upon exposure to air. 

d. spontaneously produce hydrogen fluoride. 

ANS: B 


Q11. Sour refers to the presence of: 

a. hydrogen sulfide in petroleum products. 

b. hydrogen fluoride in petroleum products. 

c. acetic acid in petroleum products. 

d. hydrocarbons in petroleum products. 

ANS: A 

Q12. Vapor freeing means ventilation or purging to remove: 

a. all vapor from the tank atmosphere. 

b. flammable and/or toxic materials from the tank atmosphere. 

c. oxygen and/or nitrogen from the tank atmosphere. 

d. water vapor and/or nitrogen from the tank atmosphere. 

ANS: B 


Q13. A person or persons designated to perform and/or supervise tasks or 

activities in accordance with the employer’s administrative controls for 

decommissioning through recomissioning tanks is a: 

a. Contractor. 

b. Operator. 

c. Qualified person. 

d. Safety guard. 

ANS: C 

Q14. All tanks that have contained petroleum or petroleum products may 

present one or more of the following hazards. Which hazard listed below does 

not belong? 

a. Fires and explosions. 

b. Oxygen deficiency or enrichment. 

c. Physical and other hazards. 

d. Working at temperatures 40 to 60⁰F. 

ANS: D 


Q15. Give an example of possibly one of the most toxic and flammable gas 

that occurs in the production, storage, and refining of sour crude oil and crude 

oil fractions: 

a. hydrogen gas. 

b. hydrogen sulfide gas. 

c. nitrogen gas. 

d. sulfur dioxide gas. 

ANS: B 

Q16. Hazards encountered while entering and cleaning tanks can be 

controlled by __________ the job in accordance with administrative controls. 

a. explaining 

b. contracting 

c. configuring 

d. pre-planning 

ANS: D 


Q17. One of the most dangerous ignition sources encountered while cleaning 

and gas freeing is pyrophoric deposits. This material is dangerous because it: 

a. will spontaneously ignite when exposed to oxygen. 

b. is very poisonous when it is dry. 

c. is inflammable when it is wet with water. 

d. produces gas when it is wet with water. 

ANS: A 

Q18. Name three general analyzers or indicators that are used as 

atmospheric testing equipment. 

a. Cellulose and H2O analyzers, and ozone indicators. 

b. Oxygen and Flammable vapor analyzers and toxic substance indicators. 

c. Carbon and iron pyrite analyzers and odor indicators. 

d. Carbon dioxide and odor analyzers and humidity indicators. 

ANS: B 


http://alfin-corner.blogspot.my/2012/07/pyrophoric-ignition-hazards-in-typical.html

Q19. Name the three types of tank entry. 

a. Entry with Special Care, with Caution, and without Prejudice. 

b. Entry with care, with Caution, and without Restrictions. 

c. Entry with Special Precautions, with Restrictions and without Restrictions. 

d. Entry with Prejudice, with Caution, and without Prejudice. 

ANS: C 

Q20. Why would a person entering a tank need to wear light colored clothing? 

a. It enhances visibility and shows contamination, 

b. It is generally cooler, and when washed, it is easy to tell when it is clean. 

c. It is not likely to produce static electricity or need as much decontamination. 

d. It contributes to cleanliness and it also serves as identification. 

ANS: A 


Q21. When respirators are required, they are to be provided by the: 

a. the inspector. 

b. the employer. 

c. the contractor. 

d. the worker. 

ANS: B 

Q22. How often should a respirator be checked to see that it fits properly. 

a. periodically 

b. weekly 

c. each time it is put on 

d. Daily 

ANS: C 


Q23. Before entering a tank, a written entry permit shall be issued by a 

qualified person and posted at the: 

a. tank name plate. 

b. job site entrance. 

c. tank stairway. 

d. tank entry point. 

ANS: D 

Q24. If a tank is entered while under Special Precautions: 

a. the employer is required to be present. 

b. a representative of OSHA shall be consulted prior to entry. 

c. at least one attendant or safety guard shall be provided. 

d. one representative from the organizations safety group shall be present. 

ANS: C 


Q25. Which of the operations or equipment below represents the most 

potential ignition source? 

a. explosion proof electric motor. 

b. dry cell flashlight. 

c. abrasive blasting. 

d. use of a brass hammer. 

ANS: C 

Q26. If a test of the tank’s atmosphere reveals it is in excess of 10% of the 

lower flammable limit, this tells you that: 

a. ventilation should be increased. 

b. it is safe to continue work in the tank. 

c. a test for toxic vapors should be performed. 

d. a test for oxygen should be performed. 

ANS: A 


Q27. Surfaces of a tank that have been in contact with leaded gasoline shall 

be scraped down to bare metal over any area of at least ______ on each side 

of the area that might be heated. 

a. 12 centimeters 

b. 12 inches 

c. 6 inches 

d. 6 centimeters 

ANS: B 

Q28. Where hot work is to be performed, what equipment is required to be 

present? 

a. a fire extinguisher and sand bucket 

b. a fire extinguisher and/or sand bucket. 

c. a pressured fire hose and wet burlap bag 

d. a fire extinguisher and/or pressured fire hose. 

ANS: D 


Q29. When filling a tank after it has been out of service, the flow rate into the 

tank shall be reduced to a rate that will minimize the creation of static 

electricity while the outlet of the fill line is exposed. This rate, or velocity 

varies depending on the product but is usually considered to be around 

_______ for steel pipe. 

a. 3 inches per second 

b. 6 centimeters per second 

c. 3 feet per second 

d. 8 feet per second 

ANS: C 

Q30. A fire, and possibly an explosion, may occur when the proper 

proportions of flammable vapors and air are exposed to an ignition source. 

The three elements necessary for a fire are: 

a. Air(oxygen), Fuel vapor, and Fire. 

b. Fuel vapor, Air(oxygen), and Ignition. 

c. Ignition, Nitrogen vapor, and Air(oxygen) 

d. Fire, H 2 O vapor, and Air(oxygen). 

ANS: B 


Q31. Name a substance that is toxic, flammable and in high concentrations 

paralyzes the sense of smell. 

a. Leaded Gasoline. 

b. Hydrogen Sulfide. 

c. Methane. 

d. Propane. 

ANS: B 

Q32. What should you consult to find hazard identification and appropriate 

precautions to be taken for a designated material? 

a. Company information. 

b. Contractor information. 

c. MSDS sheets. 

d. Tank Inspector. 

ANS: C 


Q33. When wearing semi-impermeable or impermeable clothing, workers can 

encounter heat stress when working in a tank with temperatures as low as 

____ degrees F. 

a. 30 

b. 40 

c. 50 

d. 70 

ANS: D 

Q34. One means of vapor freeing a tank is to use an inert gas purge. If this 

method is used: 

a. the tank is safe to enter after the purge gas is shut off. 

b. additional precautions are necessary to remove the inert gas before entry. 

c. unexpected sources of ignition may be left unless the inert gas is removed. 

d. electrical sources must be carefully monitored to prevent inert gas ignition. 

ANS: B 


Q35. While a tank is open and being ventilated and is being cleaned, all 

personnel should leave the site if: 

a. if water is sprayed on pyrophoric deposits. 

b. the only artificial light available is a dry cell flash light. 

c. fog restricts visibility. 

d. a lightning storm occurs. 

ANS: D 


Lightning Storm 






OPEN BOOK 

Q1. What is the flammable range of Hydrogen Sulfide? 

a. 4 to 75% b. 4 to 46% 

c. 5 to 15% d. 2 to 9% 

ANS: 

Q2. What is the flammable range of gasoline vapor in air? 

a. 1 to 4% b. 1 to 5% 

c. 1 to 7% d. 2 to 8% 

ANS: 

Q3. If the range of gasoline vapor in the air is between 10% and 50% it is 

considered to be: 

a. saturated. b. lean. 

c. rich. d. moderate. 

ANS: 


API-2015 PRACTICE QUESTION ANSWER KEY 


API-2207 PRACTICE QUESTIONS 

API publ 2207- Preparing Tank Bottoms for Hot 

Q1. An act or operation that can produce a spark or flame hot enough to 

ignite flammable vapors is called: 

a. dangerous work. 

b. hot work. 

c. safe work. 

d. hazardous work. 

ANS: B 

Q2. Tanks that have contained flammable or combustible liquids, regardless 

of their age and type of construction, must be considered unsafe until 

approved by: 

a. tank inspectors. 

b. safety inspections. 

c. operation personnel. 

d. jurisdictional representatives. 

ANS:B 


Q3. Who authorizes the hot work and should designate the necessary safety 

precautions? 

a. A trained and incompetent experienced person. 

b. A competently trained or inexperienced person. 

c. A competent engineer from the maintenance organization. 

d. A competently trained or experienced person. 

ANS: D 

Q4. Which of the items listed below are examples of adequate first aid and 

fire-fighting equipment that should be available and ready for instant use? 

a. Fire-extinguishers and water hose lines. 

b. Oxygen analyzers. 

c. Flammable vapor analyzers. 

d. A tank designer or inspector. 

ANS: A 


Q5. Work permits for the job, tank entry and hot work must be: 

a. signed and recorded before the work is started. 

b. designed and filled out before the work is started. 

c. properly signed and issued before the work is started. 

d. signed and published for three days before the work is started. 

ANS: C 

Q6. What piece of equipment should be in operation at all times during entry 

and hot work? 

a. A shovel large enough to handle debris inside the tank. 

b. A pick-up truck for transportation of tools. 

c. A tremor detector to insure warning in case the tank moves unusually. 

d. An air mover of large enough capacity to provide fresh air inside the tank. 

ANS: D 


Q7. Lines to and from the tank that have been disconnected, blanked off, or 

otherwise isolated should not be ____________ during entry and hot work. 

a. disturbed 

b. visually inspected 

c. sketched by pipe detailers 

d. Systematized 

ANS: A 

Q8. In order to weld on a tank that has contained leaded gasoline, the area 

12 inches on each side of the location to be welded must be scraped down to 

bare metal. As an alternate to scraping down to bare metal: 

a. the welders should use air- supplied respiratory equipment while welding. 

b. the welder should wear a dust respirator while welding. 

c. the welder must drink milk and be limited to a working time of 2 hours. 

d. the welder must be supplied with calcium tablets and be allowed 15 minute 

breaks every hour. 

ANS: A 


Q9. Where do you attach grounding leads from a welding machine on a tank 

when hot work is to be performed ? 

a. Attach the leads directly to any surface on the tank shell. 

b. Attach the leads to any tank pipe line near the tank. 

c. Attach the leads directly to a bared surface on the tank shell. 

d. Attach the leads to the frame of the welding machine. 

ANS: C 

Q10. While hot work is in progress, all work areas must be monitored for 

_________ and combustible and toxic atmospheres. 

a. carbon monoxide excesses 

b. presence of pyrophoric materials 

c. presence of coliform organisms 

d. oxygen deficiency 

ANS: D 


Q11. Appropriately sized openings are sometimes made in the tank bottom by 

cold cutting or by drilling holes in each area where hot work is to be 

performed. What purpose do these openings have? 

a. These openings obscure inspection and confine the gas under the tank 

bottom. 

b. These openings facilitate visual inspection and help free gas from beneath 

the tank bottom. 

c. These openings dictate the type inspection and exclude of the gas from 

the area. 

d. These openings preclude inspection and incorporate gas from the area. 

ANS:B 


Q12. In order to make small repairs, usually involving welding of corrosion 

pits and patches or other localized jobs, the following procedure is used: Tap 

a 1/2” hole adjacent to the repair area. Connect a supply of inert gas to the 

tap using metal tubing. Use a control valve with a flow indicator to prevent 

over pressuring of the tank bottom. Establish a flow of inert gas under the 

tank bottom in the vicinity of the welding to sweep away the flammable vapors 

(or dilute them sufficiently). Monitor the area to assure that the oxygen 

content remains between 19.5 and 22.5 percent. When welding is complete, 

plug the hold with a tapered pin or other device and promptly back weld the 

pin. Which of the gases listed below is inert? 

a. hydrogen 

b. oxygen 

c. hydrogen sulfide 

d. carbon dioxide 

ANS: D 


Q13. When repairs involving hot work include most of the tank bottom, it may 

be desirable to displace the flammable liquids beneath the tank by: 

a. inert gas flooding. 

b. bicarbonate solution flooding. 

c. water flooding. 

d. pumping in fire retardent foam. 

ANS: C 

Q14. Repairs around the perimeter of a tank may be made safely by 

excavating under the edge of the tank a minimum of _________ beyond the 

point of any hot-work area. Monitor area continuously to assure the oxygen 

content and seal off all openings between the floor plates and the tank 

foundation by packing them with mud. Use a vapor indicator to check the 

excavations and the seals. Continuously monitor the excavations and the 

surrounding area for airborne chemicals or gas. Ventilate the excavation if 

necessary. 

a. 30 centimeters b. 28 centimeters 

c. 26 centimeters d. 21 centimeters 

ANS: A 


Q15. What is the depth of sand recommended by API Publication 2207 to be 

placed over an existing tank floor when a double bottom is to be installed? 

a. 4 centimeters 

b. 5 centimeters 

c. 10 centimeters (4”) 

d. 13 centimeters 

ANS: C 

Q16. When using a hand or air operated tool to cold cut a tank bottom, what 

should be applied continuously to the cutting edge of the tool and why should 

it be applied? 

a. A lubricant should be applied to aid the cutting of the steel. 

b. A heating agent should be used to soften the steel and facilitate cutting. 

c. A freezing agent should be applied to reduce the heat of friction. 

d. A coolant should be applied to reduce the heat of friction. 

ANS: D 


2207 PRACTICE QUESTIONS ANSWER KEY 


ASME SECTION V - NDE - PRACTICE QUESTIONS 

Q1. The ______is responsibility for examination equipment calibration 

records. 

1. manufacturer 

2. NDE technician calibrates his own equipment and 

3. company that manufactures the NDE equipment 

4. Authorized Inspector 

ANS: 1 

Q2. At least _______copy(ies) of an NDE procedure must be available to the 

Manufacturers Nondestructive Examination Personnel at the work site. 

1. two 

2. one 

3. none 

4. there is no requirement 

ANS: 2 


Q3. The difference between an inspection and an examination per Section V 

of the ASME Code is: 

1. Inspections are non NDE functions, other Q.C. functions are examinations 

2. “examinations” are performed by NDE personnel 

3. “inspections” are performed by the Authorized Inspector 

4. 2 & 3 above 

ANS: 4 

Q4. How must all Nondestructive Examination Personnel be qualified? 

1. per the manufacturer’s PQR’s 

2. per the requirements of the referencing code or standard 

3. The AI will specify the requirements for each job 

4. they are always qualified per ASNT SNT-TC-1A 

ANS: 2 


Q5. Which of the following is not part of the minimum content of a written 

radiographic procedure? 

1. type of screens used if any 

2. type of emulsion used 

3. film brand & designation 

4. maximum X-ray voltage or isotope used 

ANS: 2 

Q6. How can compliance with a written radiographic procedure be 

demonstrated? 

1. by showing the film to the A.I. 

2. by confirming the accuracy of the radiographs with a welder or welding 

foreman 

3. by verifying the proper density and demonstrating the IQI image 

requirements 

4. by demonstrating the required sensitivity by showing the “3T” hole in a hole 

type IQI 

ANS: 3 


Q7. What finished surface is required of butt welds? 

1. all surface cracks must run vertically in the center 

2. all surface cracks must run horizontally in the center 

3. they must not have any irregularities or contours that will mask defects or 

interfere with interpretation 

4. they must not have any undercut or pinholes that will mask defects or 

interfere with interpretation 

ANS: 3 

Q8. One reason for a system of radiographic film identification is: 

1. to identify the film manufacturer 

2. so the location of defects will be traceable to the weldment 

3. to keep track of how much film is used for billing purposes 

4. so the welders will know where to have the film placed by the radiographer 

ANS: 2 


Q9. Intensifying screens may be used __________________ . 

1. only when radiographing at night 

2. only for Polaroid SE-1968 instant radiographs 

3. except when restricted by the referencing Code Section 

4. for color radiographs only 

ANS: 3 

Q10. IQIs may be what types? 

1. wire 

2. hole 

3. IQI 

4. 1 & 2 above 

ANS: 4 


Q11. Viewing facilities for radiographs shall __________________ . 

1. be small, warm and comfortable enough for afternoon naps 

2. have adjustable lighting with variable temperature control for film storage 

3. be bright and airy with lots of ferns and plants 

4. subdued background lighting that will not cause glare on the film 

ANS: 4 

Q12. The direction of the central beam of radiation should be _____ the area 

of interest whenever practical. 

1. as close as possible to 

2. centered on 

3. no more than 18” from 

4. at least 36” from 

ANS: 2 


Q13. Where are the IQI(s) normally placed? 

1. in the center of the weldment 

2. adjacent to the weld but not in the area of interest 

3. on the film side 

4. none of the above 

ANS: 2 

Q14. Where are location markers placed if they are to appear as a 

radiographic image? 

1. on the part to be radiographed 

2. on the film in the dark room 

3. on the IQIs top side over the “2T” hole 

4. 1 & 3 above 

ANS: 1 


Q15. The IQI is normally placed on which side of a part? 

1. the IQI is optional so it doesn’t matter 

2. the film side; the same side of the part to be inspected as the comparator 

3. the source side; the same side of the part being inspected as the source of 

the radiation 

4. the film side; the same side of the part to be inspected as the film 

ANS: 3 

Q16. What designation is used to indicate the IQI is on the film side? 

1. it is only noted on the radiographic report - there is no other designation 

used 

2. the welder noted it on the weld map 

3. the IQI may not be placed on the film side 

4. a lead letter “F” placed next to or on the IQI 

ANS: 4 


Q17. How many IQI’s should appear on each radiograph? 

1. there must always be one on every radiograph and it must appear as a 

radiographic image 

2. there must always be one on every radiograph but it need not appear as a 


3. there must always be two on every radiograph and it must appear as a 


4. it depends on the configuration used to set up the shot (panoramic multifilm, 

single shots, etc...) 

ANS: 4 

Q18. Shims may be placed under IQIs to simulate weld reinforcement to 

assure the density in the area of interest is not less than _________ lighter 

than the density through the IQI. 

1. 10% 

2. 25% 

3. 15% 

4. 5% 

ANS: 3 


Q19. Which of the following blemishes is permitted on film as long as they do 

not interfere with interpretation and do not mask or become confused with 

discontinuities in the area of interest? 

1. fogging & false indications from defective screens 

2. scratches, crimps, static marks & dirtiness 

3. processing defects such as streaks & water marks 

4. all of the above 

ANS: 4 

Q20. The basic minimum density requirements for single film viewing are: 

1. 1.8 for film made with an isotope and 2.0 for film made with an X-ray 

machine 


machine 


machine 

4. no more than 25% lighter in any area than the density in the darkest area 

ANS: 3 


Q21. When using only one hole IQI per film density measurements may vary 

through the area of interest by no more than ____________ . 

1. minus 15% or plus 30% 

2. plus 15% or minus 30% 

3. plus 1.5 X ratio of average densities 

4. no more than 15% from the density of the step wedge 

ANS: 1 

Q22. What are the essential indications of sensitivity for image quality of a 

radiograph? 

1. display of the “1T” hole 

2. clearly visible location markers 

3. display of the specified hole or wire of the IQI used 

4. proper density variations 

ANS: 3 


Q23. Excessive backscatter in indicated by: 

1. a lead letter “F” being visible on the radiograph 

2. a dark image of the lead letter “B” on a lighter background 

3. any image of the lead letter “B” in the background of the film 

4. a light image of the lead letter “B” on a dark background 

ANS: 4 

Q24. A tank is built with plate under 2 inches thick. The geometric 

unsharpness of the radiographs shall not exceed: 

1. 0.010" 

2. 0.020" 

3. 0.030" 

4. 0.040" 

ANS: 2 


Q25. The following information may not be included in the documentation 

accompanying the radiographs: 

1. minimum source to object distances and film brand & designation 

2. number of exposures & film identification 

3. Isotope & effective focal spot sizes 

4. development time & exact shim material specifications 

ANS: 4 

Q26. When the radiographs are presented to the Authorized Inspector ___ 

1. he will interpret them and indicate the disposition of each film on the report. 

2. he will view them only after a good lunch paid for by the NDE technician. 

3. the manufacturer will have interpreted all the film and will have indicated 

the disposition of each on the report and will have also included all the other 

information required to on the report. 

4. the radiographs will be marked with a permanent marker or by other means 

to indicate which technician processed them. 

ANS: 3 


ASME V: Article 6 & 7 

PT & MT 


Q33. Which of the following is not a type of discontinuity liquid penetrant 

examination is effective in detecting. 

1. cold shuts & laminations 

2. subsurface cracks (?) 

3. pinholes 

4. seams 

ANS: 1 

Q34. Which of the following need not be included in a Liquid Penetrant 

procedure? 

1. post examination cleaning details 

2. materials, shapes & sizes to be examined 

3. temperature of penetrant after the examination 

4. processing details for removal of excess penetrant 

ANS: 3 


Q35. Revisions to PT procedures may be required if there is 

1. a change in part processing that may close the surface openings of defects 

or leave interfering deposits 

2. a change or substitution in type or family of penetrant materials 

3. a change or substitution is made in the precleaning materials or process 

4. All of the above 

ANS: 3 

Q36. Which of the following penetrant techniques may not be used? 

1. solvent removable 

2. hard drying fluorescent 

3. water washable 

4. post emulsifying 

ANS: 2 


Q37. What materials require the use of tested and certified liquid penetrants 

as to the contaminants in the penetrant? 

1. carbon steels with > 3% chrome 

2. aluminum 

3. nickel base alloys & titanium 

4. copper 

ANS: 3 

Q38. What condition must the surface to be examined be in prior to 

conducting the examination? 

1. dry & free of all remedial demagnetization effects 

2. dry & free of any grease, lint or scale for 1” on all sides of the area to be 

examined 

3. free of all subsurface defects previously detected by other methods 

4. dry & free of extraneous matter for 2” on all sides of the area to be 

examined 

ANS: 2 


Q39. The minimum period of drying time after initial cleaning is ____. 

1. at least 5 minutes to assure that all the cleaning solution has evaporated 

prior to applying the penetrant 

2. a minimum time established to assure that all the cleaning solution has 

evaporated prior to applying the penetrant 





ANS: 2 

Q40. Which of the following is not a suitable means of removing penetrant. 

1. flushing water washable penetrant with cool water 

2. steaming water washable penetrant to remove it 

3. wiping solvent removable penetrant with a lint free cloth 

4. rinsing post emulsifying penetrant with a light stream of 100 degree F water 

ANS: 2 


Q41. Without special qualification penetrant testing can be performed 

between ______________ degrees. 

1. 50 degrees F to 135 Degrees F 

2. 50 degrees F to 125 degrees F 



ANS: 2 

Q42. When PT examination is to be performed above or below ________ the 

procedure is qualified for the temperature range intended using a ______ . 

1. 50 degrees F to 125 degrees F ---- Image Quality Indicator 

2. 50 degrees F to 125 degrees F ---- field indicator 

3. 50 degrees F to 125 degrees F ---- comparator 

4. 50 degrees F to 125 degrees F ---- and DAC curve 

ANS: 3 


Q43. Fluorescent penetrant examination shall not follow ____. 

1. UT thickness measurement 

2. radiography because the residual radiation will cause false indications 

3. Eddy current examination 

4. color contrast PT examination 

ANS: 4 

Q44. The standard maximum emulsification time for post emulsifying 

penetrants is: 

1. 90 seconds 

2. 6 minutes 

3. 10 minutes 

4. as demonstrated by test 

ANS: 4 


Q45. When removing water washable penetrant the spray of water may not 

exceed? 

1. 100 degrees F & 50 psi 




ANS:3 

Q46. Water washable and post emulsifying penetrants may be dried using 

circulated air as long as the surface of the part does not exceed: 

1. 100 degrees F 




ANS: 4 


Q47. How shall PT indications be evaluated per ASME Article 6? 

1. per universal acceptance standards in ASNT SNT-TC-1A 

2. in terms of the acceptance standards of the referencing code section 

3. per the specific requirements in appendix N.5.3 of API-789 

4. per the Owner/User procedures for NDE 

ANS: 2 

Q48. Five typical of discontinuities detectable by the magnetic particle 

method are: 

1. seams, low carbon content, cold shuts, laminations, and bad developing 

2. cracks, caustic embrittlement, seams, and silicon isotope matrix syndrome 

3. excessive weld seam reinforcement, cracks, cold shuts, seams, and low 

viscosity 

4. cracks, laps, seams, cold shuts and laminations 

ANS: 4 


Q49. What is the magnetic particle examination medium? 

1. the surfaces of ferromagnetic work pieces 

2. dry, wet or fluorescent ferromagnetic particles 

3. any type of small metal particles 

4. high iron content enamel or latex coatings 

ANS: 2 

Q50. If coating are left in place during MT examination ________ 

1. the particles used must be the same color as the coating 

2. coatings are not allowed to be left in place - all coatings must be removed 

3. the procedure must be demonstrated as capable of detecting indications 

through the maximum thickness of the coating applied 

4. all indications must be verified with penetrant examination in addition to the 

magnetic particle examination 

ANS: 3 


Q51. What type of discontinuity is the magnetic particle method most 

sensitive to? 

1. subsurface discontinuities 

2. slag inclusions not open to the surface 

3. linear discontinuities perpendicular to the lines of flux 

4. high nickel alloy weld defects 

ANS: 3 

Q52. When performing fluorescent MT examiners shall allow _____ 

_____________ for their eyes to adjust 

to the darkened conditions. 

1. 5 minutes 

2. 90 seconds 

3. 3 minutes 

4. 10 minutes 

ANS: 1 


Q53. The intensity of the black light used shall be a minimum of: 

1. 800 μW / cm2 12” from the surface of the part being examined 

2. 600 μW / cm2 on the surface of the part being examined 

3. 1800 μW / cm2 18” from the surface of the part being examined 

4. 1000 μW / cm2 on the surface of the part being examined 

ANS: 4 

Q54. Normally dry particles may not be used on surfaces over _____ and the 

wet particle suspension on surface of the work piece may not exceed ______ . 

1. 800 0F and 135 0F 

2. 900 0F and 212 0F 

3. 600 0F and 135 0F 

4. 600 0F and 125 0F 

ANS: 3: 


Q55. Magnetic field strength may be verified by using ___________________ 

1. an amp meter to determine if the field is within + 10% of full scale 

2. the proper IQI manufactured using all magnetically identical materials 

3. an ohm meter to determine if the field is within + 5% of full scale 

4. pie shaped magnetic particle field indicator or artificial flaw shims 

ANS: 4 

Q56. All examinations will be conducted with sufficient overlap to assure an 

minimum of _________coverage? 

1. 99% 

2. 100% 

3. 80% 

4. 90% 

ANS: 2 


Q57. When using the prod technique the maximum prod spacing allowed is 

__________ 

1. 1 foot 

2. 3 inches 

3. 1/2 foot 

4. 8 inches 

ANS: 4 

Q58. Magnetic particle equipment with ammeters must be calibrated 

_____________ 

1. always prior to each use 

2. after every 10 examination sessions 

3. before and after each examination 

4. prior to first use if it the equipment has not been used for a year or more. 

ANS: 4 


Q59. AC yokes must be able to lift _______ pounds at a maximum spacing of 

__________ . 

1. 40 pounds at the maximum spacing to be used during examinations 

2. 10 pounds at a maximum spacing of 18 inches or 1 1/2 feet 

3. 40 pounds at a maximum spacing of 1.5 times the length of the yoke legs 

4. 10 pounds at the maximum spacing to be used during examinations 

ANS: 4 

Q60. MT equipment with ammeters must be calibrated to a standard 

___________ 

1. supplied by the MT equipment manufacturer 

2. supplied by the ISO MT standards committee 

3. traceable to a National Standard 

4. welded by a qualified welder or welding operator qualified in accordance 

with ASME Section V 

ANS: 3 


ASME SECTION V ANSWER KEY 


ASME SECTION IX – WELDING - PRACTICE QUESTIONS: 

Q1. The purpose of the WPS and PQR is to determine that: 

1. the welder is qualified 

2. the base metals are strong enough 

3. the weldment has the desired properties 

4. the skill of the welder 

ANS: 3 

Q2. The WPS lists: 

1. nonessential variables 

2. essential variables 

3. ranges for 1 & 2 above 


ANS: 4 


Q3. The PQR must list: 

1. essential variables 

2. nonessential variables 

3. supplementary essential variables (when notch toughness is not required) 


ANS: 1 

Q4. What is the earliest Edition of Section IX recognized by the current edition? 

1. 1958 

2. 1992 

3. 1987 

4. 1962 

ANS: 4 


Q5. New Welding Procedure Specifications must meet the ______________ 

Edition and addenda of Section IX. 

1.1962 

2. latest mandatory 

3. 1986 

4. 1995 

ANS: 2 

Q6. Each _______shall conduct the tests required by Section IX to qualify the 

WPS's used during the construction, alteration, or repair. 

1. Welder or welding operator 

2. Manufacturer or contractor 

3. Inspector 


ANS: 2 


Q7. The records of procedure, welder and welding operator qualification must 

be available to the ____ . 

1. Manufacturer or Contractor 

2. Welder 

3. Authorized Inspector 

4. Foreman 

ANS: 3 

Q8. A welder qualifying with a groove weld in plate in the 4G position is 

qualified to weld groove welds in plate and pipe over 24" O.D. in the 

___positions. 

1. Overhead 

2. Flat & horizontal 

3. Flat & overhead 

4. Horizontal 

ANS: 3 


Q9. A welder qualifying with plate fillet welds in the 3F and 4F positions is 

qualified to weld groove welds in plate in the _______________ positions. 

1. Flat only 

2. Flat and horizontal 

3. Flat and vertical 

4. None of the above 

ANS: 4 

Q10. A welder qualifying by making a groove weld on pipe with an O.D. of 

3/4" in the 5G position is qualified to weld groove welds in: 

1. 1/2" O.D. Pipe in the overhead position 

2. 6" O.D. Pipe in the vertical position 

3. 3/4" O.D. pipe in the horizontal position 


ANS: 2 


ASME IX: QW-452.3 

GROOVE-WELD DIAMETER LIMITS 


ASME IX: QW-461.9 


Q11. In general, qualification on groove welds also qualifies a welder to make: 

1. Stud welds 

2. Overhand welds 

3. Fillet welds 


ANS: 3 

Q12. Charpy V-notch tests are performed to determine a weldment's 

1. Tensile strength 

2. Ductility 

3. Notch toughness 

4. All of above 

ANS: 3 


Q13. A welder making a groove weld using the SAW process on P1 materials 

may be qualified using radiography. 

1. True 

2. False 

ANS: 1 


Q14. When a tensile specimen breaks in the base metal outside of the weld 

or fusion line, the strength recorded may be _________________ below the 

specified tensile and be accepted. 

1. 3.5% 

2. .5% 

3. 5% 


ANS: 4 


Q15. Guided-bend specimens shall have no open defects in the weld or heat 

effected zone exceeding ________________ measured in any direction on 

the convex surface of the specimen after bending. 

1. 1/16" 

2. 3/32" 

3. 1/8" 


ANS: 3 

Q16. When using radiographs to qualify welders, the acceptance standards 

used are found in: 

1. ASME Section V 

2. ASME Section IX 

3. ASME Section VIII 

4. The referencing code 

ANS: 2 


Q17. A WPS must describe: 

1. Essential variables 

2. Nonessential variables (?) 

3. Supplementary essential variables when required for notch toughness 


ANS: 4 

Q18. A PQR must describe: 

1. Nonessential variables 

2. Essential variables 

3. Results of Welder Qualification tests 

4. Project description & NDE methods 

ANS: 2 


Q19. The _________ must certify the PQR as accurate. 

1. Inspector 

2. Manufacturer or contractor 

3. Welder 


ANS: 2 

Q20. For the SMAW process ______ is an essential variable for the WPS. 

1. Groove design 

2. Post Weld heat treatment 

3. Root spacing 

4. Method of cleaning 

ANS: 2 


Q21. For the SAW process _____ is an essential variable for the WPS. 

1. Supplemental powdered filler metal (if used) 

2. Filler metal diameter 

3. Preheat maintenance 

4. Addition or deletion of peening 

ANS: 1 

Q22. The basic purpose of testing a welder is to establish the welder's 

______________. 

1. Knowledge of welding requirements 

2. Ability to deposit sound weld metal 

3. mechanical ability to operate equipment 

4. General attitude toward welding inspectors 

ANS: 2 


Q23. The record of a welder's performance test is called a ______________. 

1. PQR 

2. WQR 

3. WPS 

4. WPQ 

ANS:4 

Q24. If a welder qualified with the manual SMAW process on Jan. 1, 1997 

and last welded with manual SMAW on March 15, 1997, would he still be 

qualified on October 7, 1997? 

1. Yes 

2. No 

ANS: 2 


Q25. A welder qualifying with the SMAW process with a double welded 

groove weld is qualified to weld. 

1. Without backing 

2. With all base metals 

3. With backing only 

4. With P1 backing only 

ANS: 3 

Q26. Immediate retests of welders qualifications coupons 

1. Must use the same method 

2. May use any method 

3. Are not allowed 

4. Require Inspector approval 

ANS: 1 


Q27. Welder performance qualification records must describe all the 

_____________ variables specified. 

1. Essential & nonessential 

2. Nonessential 

3. Essential 

4. Brazing 

ANS: 3 

Q28. A welder depositing 1/2" of weld metal with the SMAW process is 

qualified to deposit up to ___________ of weld metal. 

1. 8" 

2. Max to be welded (?) 

3. 1" 

4. 1/2" 

ANS: 3 


QW-452.1(b) 

THICKNESS OF WELD METAL QUALIFIED 


Q29. "P" numbers are used to designate groups of 

1. Electrodes 

2. Flux 

3. Base metals 

4. Joints 

ANS: 3 

Q30. A welder qualifying with P-No. 21 is qualified to weld 

1. P-1 - P-11 to P-1 - P-11 

2. P-8 - P8 

3. P-21 - P-25 to P-21 - P-25 

4. P21 to P21 only 

ANS: 3 


QW-403.18 A change from one P-Number to any other P-Number or to a 

base metal not listed in table QW/QB-422, except as permitted in QW-423, 

and in QW-420. 

QW-423 Alternate Base Materials for Welder Qualification 

QW-423.1 Base metal used for welder qualification may be substituted for the 

metal specified in the WPS in accordance with the following table. When a 

base metal shown in the left column is used for welder qualification, the 

welder is qualified to weld all combinations of base metals shown in the right 

column, including unassigned metals of similar chemical composition to these 

metals. 


Q31. Section IX groups welding electrodes by 

1. AWS class 

2. ASME specification 

3. SFA 

4. "F" number 

ANS:4 

Q32. Ferrous weld metal chemical composition may be designated using 

1. "P" number 

2. Welder I.D. 

3. "A" number 

4. page number 

ANS: 3 


Q33. For welder qualification with the SMAW process _____ is an essential 

variable. 

1. Base metal thickness 

2. Peening 

3. P-number 

4. Electrode diameter 

ANS: 3 

Q34. Each welder must be assigned a(n) 

1. P number 

2. Unique identifier 

3. Hood & gloves 

4. Inspector 

ANS: 2 


Q35. A welder qualification coupon welded in the 2G position of 1/2” thick 

plate material must have how many root and face bends? 

1. 2 - 1 each 

2. 4 - 2 each 

3. 6 - 2 face and 4 root 

4. 8 - 4 each 

ANS: 1 

Q36. A WPS shall have: 

1. the welder referenced. 

2. the PQR referenced. 

3. the NACE referenced. 

4. the PDQ referenced. 

ANS: 2: 


Q37. Welding in the 1G position qualifies a welder in what position? 

1. horizontal 

2. vertical 

3. flat 

4. overhead 

ANS: 3 

Q38. Which of the following is an essential variable for qualification of an 

SMAW welding procedure? 

1. “F” number 

2. joint design 

3. diameter of the electrode 

4. pipe diameter 

ANS: 1 


Q39. A welder may be qualified by RT if: 

1. The first 3' of the first production weld is radiographed. 

2. the first 6" of the first production weld is radiographed for the processes & 

mode allowed. 

3. If the first production weld passes mechanical tests. 

4. If the first production weld is passed by MT examination. 

ANS: 2 

Q40. A welder may be qualified using RT in these processes except for 

_______________ . 

1. GMAW (short-circuiting mode) 

2. GMAW (pulsed-arc) 

3. GMAW (spray-arch) 

4. SMAW 

ANS: 1 


Q41. A welder was qualified for SMAW, GMAW and GTAW on March 1. He 

has welded daily with only SMAW and has not welded with the others during 

a period from March 1 to November 1. He is qualified in the other processes 

for: 

1. 3 months. 

2. 6 months. 

3. the qualifications have expired. 

4. 9 months. 

ANS: 3 

Q42. Which of the following is an additional essential variable per API-650? 

1. welders must pass a visual acuity exam in addition to Section IX 

qualification 

2. filler metals must be stored in an oven at no less than 250 degrees F 

3. protective weld prep coatings must be documented and described 

4. Charpy impact tests must be notarized and signed by a metallurgist 

ANS: 3 


ASME SECTION IX ANSWER KEY 


大年初三 - 龙马精神 ! 




Good Luck! 


Good Luck!

Understanding API ICP653 Reading 6-Worksheet-03 Part 2

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