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END OF COURSE ASSESSMENT<br />

Idaho Department of Education<br />

PROCTOR BOOK<br />

Economics


Published by the Idaho Department of Education<br />

Fall 2002<br />

Dr. Marilyn Howard<br />

State Superintendent of Public Instruction


Instructions for the <strong>Proctor</strong><br />

Introduction<br />

The purpose of this test is to assess the knowledge and understanding of students who<br />

have completed the 12 th grade course of study in economics. This test is designed to measure the<br />

following standards from the Idaho State Achievement Standards for Social Studies -<br />

Economics: 489.01, 510.01, 511.01, 512.01, 513.01, 514.01. The results of this test will be used<br />

to assess the student’s mastery of the achievement standards and determine the student’s<br />

readiness for further study. The complete assessment package for this course of study is made<br />

up of multiple components:<br />

♦ Written Test. This written test includes multiple-choice test items and restrictedresponse<br />

essays. The correct answers are shown in red. An answer key for essay<br />

questions is at the end of this guide.<br />

Preparation<br />

During the Test<br />

1. Read the following. After all materials have been distributed to each examinee, read<br />

the following instructions before the test is allowed to begin:<br />

The purpose of this test is to assess your knowledge and understanding of the<br />

terms and concepts of Economics. You must finish the exam by the end of the exam<br />

period. Except for emergencies, you will not be allowed to leave the testing area <strong>with</strong><br />

the intent of returning to complete the exam.<br />

Read all directions for each set of items as you complete this exam. Your grade<br />

will be computed using the number of items answered correctly. Therefore, you<br />

should record an answer for every item. You must do your own work. Cheating will<br />

result in a score of 0 being recorded for this exam.<br />

When you have finished your exam, please turn all test materials in to me before<br />

you leave the testing area.<br />

2. Clarify directions as needed. Allow the examinees to begin as soon as practical.<br />

Allow as much time as possible for each examinee to complete the test.<br />

3. Keep interruptions to a minimum.<br />

4. Avoid giving hints. An examinee may ask to have specific test items clarified.<br />

Avoid the tendency to provide a hint to the answer. To maintain uniformity of test<br />

administration, any assistance provided to one examinee should be repeated for all.<br />

These interruptions should be kept brief and infrequent.<br />

i


Percentage / Cut Scores<br />

The test developers have recommended the following percentages to determine student<br />

proficiency in scoring correct answers for Economics:<br />

• 87% - 100% = Advanced Proficient<br />

• 70% - 86.9% = Proficient<br />

• 60% - 69.9% = Basic<br />

• Below 59.9% = Below Basic<br />

Questions regarding the administration of this end-of-course exam can be directed to:<br />

Dr. Carolyn Mauer, Bureau of Curriculum and Accountability or<br />

Dr. Dan Prinzing, Social Studies Coordinator<br />

Idaho Department of Education<br />

ii


End of Course Exam<br />

Economics<br />

Introduction: The purpose of this examination is to assess your knowledge and understanding<br />

of the terms and concepts of economics. You must finish this exam by the end of the<br />

exam period. Except for emergencies, you will not be allowed to leave the testing area<br />

<strong>with</strong> the intent of returning to complete the exam.<br />

Read all directions for each set of items as you complete this exam. Your grade will be<br />

computed using the number of items answered correctly. Therefore, you should record<br />

an answer for every item. You must do your own work. Cheating will result in a score<br />

of 0 being recorded for this exam.<br />

Directions: For items 1—69, select the best answer from the alternatives provided.<br />

1. A financial arrangement allowing purchase and use now and payment later<br />

a. Budget<br />

b. Credit<br />

c. Rebate<br />

d. Garnishment<br />

2. Someone who combines land, labor, and capital resources in a creative way, assuming<br />

risk in return for a chance to profit, is a/an<br />

a. employee.<br />

b. worker.<br />

c. consumer.<br />

d. entrepreneur.<br />

3. The various quantities of a good which producers are willing and able to offer for sale at<br />

a given time at different possible prices is<br />

a. a shift in supply.<br />

b. supply.<br />

c. elasticity of supply.<br />

d. a change in quantity supplied.<br />

4. This states that at higher prices consumers generally buy small quantities, and at lower<br />

prices consumers tend to buy larger quantities.<br />

a. Law of demand<br />

b. Law of supply<br />

c. Law of increasing costs<br />

d. Law of diminishing returns<br />

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5. The degree to which a price change of a good alters the quantity purchased of that good is<br />

a. diminishing marginal utility.<br />

b. a change in demand.<br />

c. the price elasticity of supply.<br />

d. the price elasticity of demand.<br />

6. An increase or decrease in quantities producers offer for sale at each and every price as a<br />

result of a change in an input cost is a<br />

a. diminishing marginal utility.<br />

b. change in quantity demanded.<br />

c. shift or change in supply.<br />

d. shift or change in demand.<br />

7. The condition occurring in a market when the price is above the equilibrium or marketclearing<br />

price is<br />

a. voluntary exchange.<br />

b. a shortage.<br />

c. scarcity.<br />

d. a surplus.<br />

8. A type of economic system in which the questions of what to produce, how much to<br />

produce, how to produce, and who will get the products, is answered by individuals<br />

consumers and producers is a<br />

a. market economy.<br />

b. traditional economy.<br />

c. command economy.<br />

d. mixed economy.<br />

9. In the world of trade this is enjoyed by the producers who are able to produce an item at a<br />

lower opportunity cost than their competitors is<br />

a. dumping.<br />

b. a trade barrier.<br />

c. a comparative advantage.<br />

d. trade imbalance.<br />

2


10. A form of business organization which furnishes limited liability for owners, unlimited<br />

life for the firm, and the ability to raise large amounts of money capital is a<br />

a. sole proprietorship.<br />

b. corporation.<br />

c. partnership.<br />

d. limited-liability company.<br />

11. A type of investment which confers ownership to the investors, and a chance to profit via<br />

dividends and capital gains is a/an<br />

a. U.S. treasury security.<br />

b. certificate of deposit.<br />

c. corporate bond.<br />

d. common stock.<br />

12. The monetary policy tool of the Fed which involves buying or selling U.S. treasury<br />

securities is<br />

a. the discount rate.<br />

b. the reserve requirement.<br />

c. open-market operations.<br />

d. automatic stabilizers .<br />

13. What does the law of demand predict about the relationship between prices and the<br />

number of purchases?<br />

a. At higher prices, sellers will offer more items for sale than at lower prices.<br />

b. At higher prices, buyers will purchase more items than at lower prices<br />

c. At lower prices buyers will purchase more items than at higher prices.<br />

d. At lower prices sellers will offer more items than at higher prices.<br />

14. A change in quantity demanded is caused by and represented graphically as a<br />

a. change in price of item of interest; shift of curve to right.<br />

b. change in price of item of interest; movement along the curve.<br />

c. change in price of item of interest; shift of curve the left.<br />

d. no change in price of item of interest; movement along the curve.<br />

15. The likely result of a price floor (i.e. minimum wage) is which of the following?<br />

a. A shortage of workers<br />

b. No change in the equilibrium quantity of workers<br />

c. The quantity demanded would be equal to the quantity supplied of workers<br />

d. A surplus of workers<br />

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16. Which of the following is the basic reason for countries to engage in international trade?<br />

a. Benefit to one trading country<br />

b. Mutual benefit from exchange<br />

c. Benefit to neither trading country<br />

d. Government regulation<br />

17. Engaging in international trade results in which of the following?<br />

a. More efficient use of scarce global resources<br />

b. Less efficient use of scarce global resources<br />

c. No change in efficiency of global resource use<br />

d. Total satisfaction of all parties involved<br />

18. The economic system of the United States is best described as<br />

a. Mixed<br />

b. Traditional<br />

c. Market<br />

d. Command<br />

19. Which of the following is an important advantage of a sole proprietorship?<br />

a. Lack of money capital<br />

b. Psychological (being own boss)<br />

c. Unlimited liability<br />

d. Limited life<br />

20. Which of the following is an important disadvantage of a corporation?<br />

a. Unlimited life<br />

b. Limited life<br />

c. Ability to raise money capital<br />

d. High cost of start-up<br />

21. The stock market in general may be defined as which of the following?<br />

a. An organized means of linking savers and business investors.<br />

b. A convenient way to lose money<br />

c. A government owned enterprise<br />

d. The cause of the great depression<br />

4


22. How does the stock market in general assist the global economy?<br />

a. Sets interest rates<br />

b. Widens the gap between developed and undeveloped countries<br />

c. Allows money capital to travel where it is most needed<br />

d. Discourages diplomatic relationships among countries<br />

23. Basic monetary policy deals <strong>with</strong> which of the following?<br />

a. Changing tax laws<br />

b. Changing the amount of money circulating in the economy<br />

c. Changing government spending<br />

d. Placing tariffs on imports<br />

24. If the Federal Reserve (Fed) wishes to increase the supply of money circulating in our<br />

economy, it would do which of the following?<br />

a. Sell U.S. government securities<br />

b. Increase the discount rate<br />

c. Increase the reserve requirements<br />

d. Buy U.S. government securities.<br />

25. An amount of money offered by a credit user to reduce the initial amount borrowed on a<br />

loan is called a/an<br />

a. line of credit.<br />

b. finance charge.<br />

c. down payment.<br />

d. APR.<br />

26. A credit card is a form of<br />

a. revolving credit.<br />

b. single payment credit.<br />

c. installment credit.<br />

d. debit card.<br />

27. The figure required by law to appear on all loan forms is the<br />

a. credit record.<br />

b. compound interest.<br />

c. annual percentage rate.<br />

d. credit history.<br />

5


28. A method of interest calculation that uses the principal plus accrued unpaid interest as the<br />

basis for calculating interest in the current time period is known as<br />

a. compound interest.<br />

b. annual percentage rate.<br />

c. simple interest.<br />

d. security interest.<br />

29. A financial institution which is non-profit and whose customers are members is called a<br />

a. commercial bank.<br />

b. credit union.<br />

c. savings and loan association.<br />

d. finance company.<br />

30. Jim was involved in an automobile accident and his car was damaged. The repair bills<br />

totaled $2,000. Jim has insurance for the car <strong>with</strong> a $250 deductible. How much of the<br />

total repair bill will Jim have to pay?<br />

a. $2,250<br />

b. $2,000<br />

c. $500<br />

d. $250<br />

31. An investment option which furnishes the investor diversification, professional<br />

management and a variety of goal choices is known as a<br />

a. certificate of deposit.<br />

b. preferred stock.<br />

c. mutual funds.<br />

d. common stock.<br />

32. A form or type of tax characterized by a lower tax rate for lower incomes and a higher tax<br />

rate for higher incomes is called a/an<br />

a. regressive tax.<br />

b. revenue tax.<br />

c. progressive tax.<br />

d. excise tax.<br />

33. Initially labor unions were organized to do all of the following except:<br />

a. improve safety and working conditions.<br />

b. increase wages and benefits.<br />

c. decrease taxes.<br />

d. promote job security.<br />

6


34. Jane bought a dress for the homecoming dance. When she got home she found a flaw in<br />

the fabric and became distressed. Jane should<br />

a. contact her attorney.<br />

b. find someone who can correct the problem.<br />

c. take the dress back to the merchant.<br />

d. write a letter of complaint to the manufacturer.<br />

35. In order to establish a credit history a consumer must<br />

a. attend courses in the history of credit.<br />

b. use credit over a period of time to show payment activity.<br />

c. apply for credit history at a local savings and loan.<br />

d. all of the above.<br />

36. Credit card companies make money from all of the following EXCEPT<br />

a. interest paid by credit card holders.<br />

b. fees paid by stores.<br />

c. taxes paid on purchase of goods.<br />

d. annual fees paid by credit card holders.<br />

37. When considering a bank <strong>with</strong> which to do business,<br />

a. consider services offered and costs involved.<br />

b. be sure the bank is conveniently located <strong>with</strong> adequate hours.<br />

c. check for their FDIC credentials.<br />

d. all of the above.<br />

38. Todd borrows $500 for one year at 15% simple interest. How much interest is paid<br />

monthly?<br />

a. $43.5l<br />

b. $8.65<br />

c. $75.00<br />

d. $6.25<br />

39. Sue’s disposable income is $1,100 per month before she takes out a new car loan for<br />

$10,000, <strong>with</strong> a monthly payment of $300. What is Sue’s disposable income after she<br />

borrows for the new car?<br />

a. $300<br />

b. $800<br />

c. $1,100<br />

d. $11,100<br />

7


40. The cost of borrowing money is paid by consumers as<br />

a. taxes.<br />

b. principal.<br />

c. product costs.<br />

d. interest.<br />

41. What roll has the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation played in banking services?<br />

a. Required federal testing for all bank employees<br />

b. Established federal statutes for bank vault construction<br />

c. Provided safety of principal from loss up to $l00,000 per account<br />

d. Allowed safe deposit records to remain anonymous<br />

42. What are the three types of <strong>with</strong>holdings taken from the typical wage earners paycheck?<br />

a. Federal taxes, state taxes, FICA<br />

b. Federal taxes, county taxes, FICA<br />

c. Federal taxes, state taxes, county taxes<br />

d. County taxes, state taxes, FICA<br />

43. Whose purchasing power declines most in times of inflation?<br />

a. Borrowers<br />

b. People on fixed incomes<br />

c. Government<br />

d. People <strong>with</strong> part-time jobs<br />

44. Consumers who borrow money must generally accept which of the following<br />

consequences?<br />

a. Lower living standard<br />

b. Higher total cost for the item purchased<br />

c. Inconvenience in purchasing goods<br />

d. Greater ability to save on income tax<br />

45. Consumers who abuse credit and end up taking out a consolidation loan may generally<br />

end up paying<br />

a. less interest.<br />

b. equal interest.<br />

c. no interest.<br />

d. more interest.<br />

8


46. What is the universal economic problem that forces all of us to make choices in a world<br />

of limited resources and unlimited wants?<br />

a. Marginal cost<br />

b. Allocation<br />

c. Scarcity<br />

d. Trade-offs<br />

47. When we give up one thing to gain another, it is called the<br />

a. opportunity cost.<br />

b. marginal cost.<br />

c. marginal benefit.<br />

d. production-possibilities frontier.<br />

48. The additional or extra expense of producing one more item is called<br />

a. marginal cost.<br />

b. opportunity cost.<br />

c. explicit costs.<br />

d. variable cost.<br />

49. The essential ingredients or requirements needed to produce any product or service are<br />

referred to as<br />

a. macroeconomics.<br />

b. microeconomics.<br />

c. basic economic questions.<br />

d. factors of production.<br />

50. An economic model or tool which shows visually the output potential given a limited<br />

amount of resources and a given technological condition is a<br />

a. demand curve.<br />

b. circular flow chart.<br />

c. budget line.<br />

d. production possibilities frontier.<br />

51. The branch of economics which deals <strong>with</strong> issues, policies, and wants relating to an<br />

individual or a business firm is<br />

a. macroeconomics.<br />

b. microeconomics.<br />

c. international economics.<br />

d. supply-side economics.<br />

9


52. Money serves which the following purposes or functions?<br />

a. medium of exchange.<br />

b. standard or measure of value.<br />

c. store of value.<br />

d. all of the above.<br />

53. Relating to the human economic condition, which of the following is virtually limitless?<br />

a. Money<br />

b. Needs<br />

c. Wants<br />

d. Goods<br />

54. That portion of the economy made up of individuals, businesses, and non-government<br />

entities is the<br />

a. public sector.<br />

b. private sector.<br />

c. Federal Reserve.<br />

d. Internal Revenue Service.<br />

55. The basic economic problem is<br />

a. poverty.<br />

b. scarcity.<br />

c. unemployment.<br />

d. inflation.<br />

56. The opportunity cost of doing your homework rather than going to the basketball game is<br />

a. watching the game.<br />

b. unimportant since money is not involved.<br />

c. nothing since homework is more important.<br />

d. having your homework completed.<br />

57. Which of the following is a characteristic of an entrepreneur?<br />

a. Not necessary in the production process.<br />

b. Protected from loss by producing only profitable output.<br />

c. Anyone who is part of the production process.<br />

d. A risk taker who combines the other factors of production.<br />

10


58. In a market economy the questions of what, how and for whom to produce are answered<br />

by<br />

a. traditions and customs.<br />

b. a central planning agency.<br />

c. individuals primarily, producers secondarily.<br />

d. producers only.<br />

59. In a command economy the questions of what, how, and for whom to produce are<br />

answered by<br />

a. traditions and customs.<br />

b. a central planning agency.<br />

c. individuals.<br />

d. producers.<br />

60. The incentive(s) to produce in a market economy is/are<br />

a. quotas.<br />

b. government forecasts.<br />

c. profit.<br />

d. altruism.<br />

61. The process of choosing which of our needs and wants will be satisfied and how much of<br />

our resources will be used to satisfy them is called<br />

a. opportunity cost.<br />

b. capitalism.<br />

c. scarcity.<br />

d. allocation.<br />

62. If prices increase by 10% during a period when wages increase by 5%, what function of<br />

money is primarily being affected?<br />

a. Store of value<br />

b. Deflation<br />

c. Medium of exchange<br />

d. Inflation<br />

63. When some European countries agreed to replace their money <strong>with</strong> the Euro, what<br />

function of money was primarily being affected?<br />

a. Store of value<br />

b. Measurement of value<br />

c. Medium of exchange<br />

d. Inflation<br />

11


64. The public sector is best suited to deal <strong>with</strong> externalities because it<br />

a. has power to make and enforce laws.<br />

b. creates the externalities.<br />

c. has money to pay for damages.<br />

d. represents all of the people.<br />

65. One problem associated <strong>with</strong> public goods is<br />

a. improving private sector efficiency.<br />

b. they cost more than private goods.<br />

c. free riders.<br />

d. having too many public goods when taxes decline.<br />

66. Which of the following statements represents a function of the public sector?<br />

a. Defines and enforces property rights<br />

b. Redistributes income<br />

c. Promotes competition<br />

d. All of the above<br />

Items 67—69 refer to the following sketch: Mary wants to start a business making shirts, she<br />

will put her own logo on them and sell them for twice what it costs her to make them.<br />

Mary has purchased some cotton fabric and owns a sewing matching.<br />

67. The sewing machine represents which factor of production?<br />

a. Land<br />

b. Labor<br />

c. Capital<br />

d. Entrepreneurship<br />

68. The cotton fabric represents which factor of production?<br />

a. Land<br />

b. Labor<br />

c. Capital<br />

d. Entrepreneurship<br />

69. When Mary hires an employee, the employee would represent which factor of<br />

production?<br />

a. land<br />

b. labor<br />

c. capital<br />

d. entrepreneurship<br />

12


Directions: Complete each of the following Activities. Record your answers in the appropriate<br />

space on the written response sheet provided.<br />

70. Given the following market scenario illustrated by the supply/demand graph below, do<br />

the following:<br />

a. Explain whether the market condition created is a surplus or a shortage.<br />

b. Calculate how large (the quantity) that surplus or shortage will be.<br />

c. Explain in a free market whether price will tend to rise or fall. Why will price adjust?<br />

$Bushel<br />

Wheat<br />

$8<br />

$7<br />

D<br />

S<br />

$6<br />

$5<br />

Price floor (e.g. farm subsidy or<br />

minimum wage)<br />

$4<br />

$3<br />

$2<br />

$1<br />

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8<br />

(Bushels 000)<br />

13


End of Course Exam <strong>Answer</strong> <strong>Key</strong><br />

Economics<br />

Test Item<br />

Number<br />

70. a. Surplus<br />

Correct <strong>Answer</strong><br />

70. b. 6–3=3<br />

70. c. Price will tend to fall to rid the market of the surplus.<br />

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