IES-2010 IES Academy ME (Paper-II) Mechanical Engineering ...

India’s No 1
IES Academy
IES-2010
ME (Paper-II)
Mechanical Engineering (Paper-II)
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU
SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY
UNPRNTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT
REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE
MAY BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE TN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This is Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions). Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark
the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response
for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the
Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per
instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the
examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer
Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A
CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question
for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.33) of
the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer
even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same
penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there, will be
no penalty for that question.
DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO
www.iesacademy.com Email: iesacademy@yahoo.com Page-1
__
25, 1 st Floor, Jia Sarai, Near IIT. New Delhi-16 Ph: 011-26537570, 9810958290

India’s No 1
IES Academy
IES-2010
ME (Paper-II)
Q1. Consider the following statements:
Queuing Theory is used for
(1) Inventory problems
(2) Traffic congestion studies
(3) Job-shop scheduling.
Which of the statements given above are correct
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
Q2. On which of the following factors does selection of material handling
equipments depend
(1) Cost (2) Material characteristics
(3) Type of productions (4) Equipments available and
their characteristics
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Q3. Which of the following factors influences a plant layout
(1) Type of industry (2) Type of machines
(3) Type of products (4) Volume of production
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
Q4. Maximum problems in scheduling are encountered in
(a) Job type production
(b) Batch production
(c) Mass production
(d) Flow type production
Q5. What is a chart representing fundamental motions of two hands known as
(a) Two hand process chart
(b) Activity chart
(c) SIMO chart
(d) Process chart
Q6. What is a chart showing sequence of operations for more than one item
known as
(a) Multiple activity chart
(b) Assembly chart
(c) Operation process chart
(d) Multi-product process chart
Q7. If the objective is to project the trend and seasonal variations in forecasting
demand, then which is the appropriate model
(a) Simple moving average
(b) Time series decomposition
(c) Weighted moving average
(d) Double exponential smoothing
Q8. What diameter should the driving pulley have on which a rubber belt runs
so that bending stress in belt is limited to 5 N/mm (The belt cross section is
a rectangle 15 mm thick × 110 mm wide, E for belt material is 100 N/mm 2 )
(a) 30 mm (b) 150 mm (c) 300 mm (d) 15 mm
www.iesacademy.com Email: iesacademy@yahoo.com Page-2
__
25, 1 st Floor, Jia Sarai, Near IIT. New Delhi-16 Ph: 011-26537570, 9810958290

India’s No 1
IES Academy
IES-2010
ME (Paper-II)
Q9. Match List-I (Mechanical Property) with List-II (Mechanical Test) and
select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I
(A) Percentage elongation
(B) Hardness
(C) Toughness
(D) Modulus of rigidity
Codes:
List-II
(1) Vickers Pyramid test
(2) Tensile test
(3) Torsion test
(4) Impact test
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 4 1 2 3
Q10. A hollow circular section column with outer diameter 80 min and inner
diameter 60 mm is subjected to bucking. What is the radius of gyration of
the column section
(a) 25 mm (b) 20 mm (c) 15 mm (d) 10 mm
Q11. Cycloidal tooth profile of a cycloidal gear tooth is a combination of
(a) Hypocycloid and in-volute of a circle
(b) Hypocycloid and epicycloid
(c) Epicycloid and involute of a circle
(d) Straight line and epicycloids
Q12. Consider the following statements regarding boundary lubrication
conditions in hydrodynamic journal bearings:
(1) It is an undesirable condition
(2) It always occurs during starting and stopping of the journal
(3) It necessitates frequent repair of the journal
(4) This condition can be completely eliminated by using high viscosity
lubricant
Which of the statements given above are correct
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4
Q13. When the lubricating oil is forced between the journal and bearing by
external pressure, the bearing in known as
(a) Zero film bearing
(b) Boundary lubricated bearing
(c) Hydrostatic bearing
(d) Hydrodynamic bearing
Q14. The performance of a hydrodynamic journal bearing is a function of
(a) Reynolds number
(b) Summerfield number
(c) Speed
(d) Bearing modulus
Q15. The problem of hunting of a centrifugal governor becomes very acute when
the governor becomes
(a) Less sensitive
(b) Highly sensitive
(c) Highly stable
(d) Less stable
www.iesacademy.com Email: iesacademy@yahoo.com Page-3
__
25, 1 st Floor, Jia Sarai, Near IIT. New Delhi-16 Ph: 011-26537570, 9810958290

India’s No 1
IES Academy
IES-2010
ME (Paper-II)
Q16. In an operation process chart, which of the following are recorded
(1) Operation (2) Inspection (3) Storage
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q17. Which one of the following principles/laws converts a dynamics problem to
an equivalent static’s problem
(a) Newton’s second of motion
(b) D’ Alembert’s principle
(c) Principle of conservation of energy
(d) Principle of conservation of momentum
Q18. If a simply supported beam at its ends is loaded by a central concentrated
load, then the maximum bending moment is M. If the same load is equally
distributed over the beam, then what is its maximum bending moment
(a) M (b) M/2 (c) M/3 (d) M/4
Q19. Match List-I (Job) with List-II (Recording Technique Used) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List-I
(A) Sequences of manufacturing
operations
(B) Factory layout to indicate the
movement of materials
(C) Factory layout to indicate the
movement of workers
(D) Automatic operations
List-II
(1) Flow process chart
(2) SIMO chart
(3) String diagram
(4) Outline process chart
(5) Multiple activity chart
Codes:
A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 1 3 5 (b) 5 3 2 4
(c) 4 3 2 5 (d) 5 1 3 4
Q20. The total observed time for an operation of assembling an electric switch is
1.00 mm. If the rating is 120% and an allowance of 10% is allowed for the
operation, what is the standard time
(a) 1.32 mm (b) 1.20 mm (c) 0.12 mm (d) 1.30 mm
Q21. What is an analysis of methods, materials, tools and equipments used or to
be used in the performance of a piece of work called
(a) Method study
(b) Time study
(c) Work study
(d) Work measurement
Q22. Which of the following parts can be made economically by powder
metallurgy
(1) Gears (2) Automobile cylinders
(3) Filters (4) Gun barrels
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
www.iesacademy.com Email: iesacademy@yahoo.com Page-4
__
25, 1 st Floor, Jia Sarai, Near IIT. New Delhi-16 Ph: 011-26537570, 9810958290

India’s No 1
IES Academy
IES-2010
ME (Paper-II)
Q23. How are tooth-paste capsules produced
(a) By boring operation
(b) By tube turning operation
(c) By impact extrusion
(d) By tube drawing
Q24. What is the force required to be exerted by the punch in order to shear out
the blank (from a circular disc) of 20 mm diameter and 1.5 mm thickness
and having a shear strength equal to 300 MPa
(a) 9.0 kN (b) 18.0 kN (c) 28.3 kN (d) 45.0 kN
Q25. In blanking operation, the clearance is provided
(a) on the punch
(b) on the die
(c) both on the punch and the die (d) Neither on the punch nor on the die
Q26. At which temperature is cold working of metals carried out
(a) At the re-crystallisation temperature
(b) Below the re-crystallisation temperature
(c) Above the recrystallisation temperature
(d) At any temperature
Q27. What is the process of making sheet metal components to the contour of a
die by making use of an explosive impact known as
(a) Explosive cladding
(b) Explosive welding
(c) Explosive forming
(d) Explosive joining
Q28. In a multi-spindle automatic machine, on which one of the following factors
does the cycle time for each operation depend
(a) Shortest single-operation
(b) Shortest multi-operations
(c) Longest single-operations
(d) Longest multi-operations
Q29. Which of the following statements is true for the case of a transfer line
(a) The work stations must form a closed-loop.
(b) The cycle time is total time taken by all the machining operations.
(c) All the machine tools must be automatic.
(d) All the machine tools must be of conventional and general purpose type.
Q30. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the climb milling (down
milling) operation
(a) The work piece is fed in the opposite direction.
(b) Forces are less.
(c) High rigidity of the machine tool is required.
(d) Chip thickness is maximum at the end of the cut.
Q31. Which one of the following properties is not possessed by ceramic tools
(a) High hardness
(b) High compressive strength
(c) High thermal conductivity
(d) High brittleness
www.iesacademy.com Email: iesacademy@yahoo.com Page-5
__
25, 1 st Floor, Jia Sarai, Near IIT. New Delhi-16 Ph: 011-26537570, 9810958290

India’s No 1
IES Academy
IES-2010
ME (Paper-II)
Q32. Suppose two rotors with inertias I1 and I2 on shafts of lengths l 1
and l 2
respectively, are connected by gears such that the speed of the I2 rotor is
always G times that of the I2 rotor. This system may, for vibration analysis,
be treated as being on one shaft (integral with l 1
.) if
(a) I1 is changed to G 2 I1
(b) I2 is changed to G 2 I2
(c) I1 is changed to I1/G 2 (d) I2 is changed to I2 /G 2
Q33. Two rotors A and B are connected to the two ends of a shaft of uniform
diameter. The mass moment of inertia of rotor A about the axis of the shaft
is four times that of B. If the length of the shaft is 1 m and C is the position
of node for torsional vibrations, then what is the length of AC
(a) 1/5 m (b) 4/5 m (c) 1/25 m (d) 16/25 m
Q34. The workmen in an engineering company are expected to work for 400
minutes in a shift of 8 hours. The remaining time is meant for rest and
personal needs etc. What is the standard time piece of a job whose normal
time is 2 minute
(a) 2.40 minutes (b) 4.80 minutes (c) 1.08 minutes (d) 1.5 minutes
Q35. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given
below the lists:
List-I
A. Work cycle motions should be
habitual
B. Hand motions should be confined
List-II
1. Tools, material and controls should be
located close to arid directly in front of
worker
to lowest possible classification 2. There should be a definite and fixed place
with which it is possible to
perform the job
C. Rhythm is essential for smooth
for all tools and materials
3. Materials and tools should be located to
permit best possible sequence of motion
and automatic performance of an
operation
Codes:
A B C A B C
(a) 1 2 3 (b) 1 3 2
(c) 2 1 3 (d) 2 3 1
Q36. Speed and direction of workers movements can be better recorded by
which one of the following
(a) Flow chart
(b) Chronocycle graph
(c) Chronometer
(d) Flow diagram
Q37. Which one of the following is the correct statement
If cost estimation at the break even point the cost of production is
(a) Greater than the sales
(b) Less than the sales
(c) Equal to total sales
(d) Profit sales
Q38. Which one of the following is not an advantage of a product layout
(a) Reduced material handling
(b) Better utilization of machines and men
(c) Less floor area is occupied by the material in transit and for temporary storage
(d) Less capital investment
www.iesacademy.com Email: iesacademy@yahoo.com Page-6
__
25, 1 st Floor, Jia Sarai, Near IIT. New Delhi-16 Ph: 011-26537570, 9810958290

India’s No 1
IES Academy
IES-2010
ME (Paper-II)
Q39. Which one of the following factors does not affect the plant location
decision
(a) Organization’s objectives
(b) Resources
(c) Socio-economic environment
(d) Organizational structure
Q40. Match List-I (Material to be handled) with List-II (Appropriate Material
Handling Equipment) and select the correct answer using the code given
www.iesacademy.com Email: iesacademy@yahoo.com Page-7
__
below the lists:
List-I
A. Large castings
B. Granular material
C. Auto engine block
D. Small engine parts
List-II
1. Screw conveyor
2. Belt conveyor
3. Overhead crane
4. Roller conveyor
Codes:
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 3 1 4 2
Q41. Match List-I (Method in capital Budgeting) with List-II (Characteristics)
and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I
A. Pay Back Period
B. Net Present Value
C. Internal rate of return
List-II
1. Discount rate that equates present values of
expected cash flows
2. Cash provision is made to replace asset at the
end of its life
3. Project pays for itself in some years
4. Value of future cash inflows discounted at a
rate compared with investment
Codes:
A B C A B C
(a) 3 2 1 (b) 3 4 1
(c) 4 3 2 (d) 2 1 4
Q42. Which one of the following is capital budgeting
(a) Working capital management
(b) Floating of shares
(c) Financial planning
(d) Finance control
Q43. Which one of the following information cannot be obtained from the static
tensile test of a mild steel specimen
(a) Modulus of elasticity
(b) Qualitative determination of toughness
(c) Ductility
(d) Weld ability
Q44. What type of fracture occurs when a brittle material is under torsion
(a) Cup and cone
(b) Granular transverse
(c) Granular helicoidally
(d) Smooth transverse
25, 1 st Floor, Jia Sarai, Near IIT. New Delhi-16 Ph: 011-26537570, 9810958290

India’s No 1
IES Academy
IES-2010
ME (Paper-II)
Q45. Consider the following statements relating to Rockwell Hardness Testing
Method:
1. It is a quick method to determine hardness of industrial components.
2. Polishing of test sample is necessary.
3. Test load is applied in two stages.
4. Hardness of relatively softer metals cannot be determined by this
method.
5. Inverted pyramid type of indenter is used.
Which of the statements given above are correct
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only (d) 2, 4 and 5
Q46. The criterion of constraint of a chain connecting the number of binary
joints (J), number of higher pairs (H) and the number of links (L) is:
www.iesacademy.com Email: iesacademy@yahoo.com Page-8
__
H 3L
J + = − 2 . When is the chain locked
2 2
(a) L.H.S. = R.H.S.
(c) L.H.S. < R.H.S.
Q47. Which one of the following statements is correct
Transmission angle is the angle between
(a) The output link and the frame
(b) The output link and the coupler
(c) The input link and the coupler
(d) The input link and the frame
(b) L.H.S. > R.H.S.
(d) The chain will never get locked
Q48. In typical power transmission with reduction from an induction motor of
speed 1450 rpm an to a speed as low as 1 rpm, which one of the following
orders of reduction is desirable
(a) Worm drive-spur drive-belt drive
(b) Belt drive-spur drive-worm drive
(c) Worm drive-belt drive-spur drive
(d) Spur drive-worm drive-belt drive
Q49. Which one of the following correctly relates the life of a roller bearing in
millions of revolutions (L) the load P and the basic dynamic load rating for
1 million revolutions (c)
(a) L = ( C/P ) 3
(b) L = ( C/P ) 10/3
(c) L = ( P/C ) 3
(d) L = ( C/P ) 1/3
Q50. If the frequency of fluctuations in engine speed coincides with the natural
frequency of oscillations of the governor, then, due to resonance, the
amplitude of oscillations becomes very high. Consequently, the governor
tends to intensify the speed variations. What is such a situation
(a) Sensitiveness (b) Stability (c) Isochronism (d) Hunting
25, 1 st Floor, Jia Sarai, Near IIT. New Delhi-16 Ph: 011-26537570, 9810958290

India’s No 1
IES Academy
IES-2010
ME (Paper-II)
Q51. Which one of the following is realized by hydraulic dashpot shock
absorbers
(a) Viscous damping
(b) Structural damping
(c) Coulomb damping
(d) Spring damping
Q52. Which one of the following is the correct statement Transmissibility is
defined as the ratio of the
(a) Force applied to the machine to the force transmitted to the foundation
(b) Force transmitted to the foundation to the force applied to the machine
(c) Force applied to the machine to the vector sum of spring forces
(d) Damping forces to the spring forces
Q53. Which one of the following is rupture stress
(a) Breaking stress
(b) Maximum load original cross-sectional area (A)
(c) Load at breaking point A
(d) Load at breaking point neck area
Q54. A straight uniform rod is subjected to axial load.
Which one of the following is the correct statement
(a) It induces maximum shearing stress on a transverse plane
(b) It induces maximum normal stress on a plane inclined at 45° to the axis of the
rod
(c) It induces maximum shear stress on a plane inclined at 45° to the axis of the rod
(d) It includes zero shear stress on any inclined plane to the axis of the rod
Q55. A 2 m long rod of diameter 2 mm is subjected to an axial pull of 1 kN. The
rod is extended by 0.5 cm. What is the approximate value of the modulus of
elasticity of the material of the rod
(a) 127 G Pa (b) 180 G Pa (c) 125 G Pa (d) 200 G Pa
Q56. Which one of the following is the preferable cross-section of a beam for
bending loads
(a) Circular
(b) Annular circular
(c) Rectangular
(d) 1 section
Q57. Which one of the following is the correct statement
The point of contra flexure in a beam is point on its length where
(a) The shear force is zero
(b) The bending moment is maximum
(c) The bending moment change its algebraic sigh and is zero at the point
(d) The shear force change its algebraic sigh
Q58. Which one of the following temperatures is exactly suited to carry out hot
working processes
(a) Room temperature
(b) Temperature of recovery stage
(c) Temperature above recrystallization stage
(d) Temperature of grain growth stage
www.iesacademy.com Email: iesacademy@yahoo.com Page-9
__
25, 1 st Floor, Jia Sarai, Near IIT. New Delhi-16 Ph: 011-26537570, 9810958290

India’s No 1
IES Academy
IES-2010
ME (Paper-II)
Q59. What is the value of volumetric strain in a thin walled cylindrical vessel
with
Modulus of elasticity E. Poisson’s ratio µ and of diameter ‘d’, wall thickness
‘t’ and subjected to internal fluid pressure p
pd
pd
pd
pd
(a) (5 − 4 μ)
(b) (4 − 3 μ)
(c) (3 − 2 μ)
(d) (2 − μ)
4tE
3tE
2tE
tE
Q60. A closed coiled helical tension spring having 20 coils is cut in two parts
such that part A has 8 coils and part B has 12 coils. What is the ratio of
stiffness of the spring A to the stiffness of the spring B
(a) 1 (b) ½ (c) 3/2 (d) 3/4
Q61. Which one of the following material has the highest ultimate tensile
strength
(a) Mild steel (b) Cast iron (c) Spring steel (d) Wrought iron
Q62. Which one of the following is correct for shaft carrying two rotors at its
ends
(a) It has no node
(b) It has one node
(c) It has two nodes
(d) It has three nodes
Q63. A type-2 system has its transfer function for open loop represented by
www.iesacademy.com Email: iesacademy@yahoo.com Page-10
__
4(1 + δ )
GsH () ( δ ) =
2
δ (1 + 0.1 s)
in the s-plane.
Nyquist plot shows that there are no poles within the path of values of s. It
further shows that there is no encirclement of -1 + 1.0. Then what is the
number of zeros at the said plot
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) 3
Q64. Which one of the following does not affect the selection of optimum cutting
speed for minimum cost
(a) Labour cost
(b) Machine maintenance cost
(c) Tool cost
(d) Job handling cost
Q65. What is the variation of cutting speed with tool life on Log-Log scale
(a) Parabolic variation
(b) Straight line variation
(c) Hyperbolic variation
(d) Elliptical variation
Q66. In a milling machine two side milling cutters are mounted with a desired
distance between them so that both sides of the work piece can be milled
simultaneously. What is this set-up called
(a) Gang million
(b) Straddle milling
(c) String milling
(d) Side milling
25, 1 st Floor, Jia Sarai, Near IIT. New Delhi-16 Ph: 011-26537570, 9810958290

India’s No 1
IES Academy
IES-2010
ME (Paper-II)
Q67. The ratio of time of return stroke to time of forward stroke of a shaping
machine is 0.6. The stroke is 250 mm and it makes 30 double strokes per
minute. What is the overall average speed of operation
(a) 3.75 m/min
(b) 5.0 m/min
(c) 7.5 m/min
(d) 12 m/min
Q68. Which one of the following processes necessarily requires mandrel of
requisite diameter to form the internal hole
(a) Hydrostatic extrusion
(b) Tube drawing
(c) Swaging
(d) Wire drawing
Q69. In drawing operation if D
i
= initial diameter and
then what is the degree of drawing equal to
(a)
D − D
D
1 0
1
(b)
D − D
D
0 1
0
(c)
D
− D
2 2
1 0
2
D1
D
o
= outgoing diameter,
(d)
D
− D
2 2
1 0
2
D1
Q70. Consider the following steps involved in conditioning of metal powders in
powder metallurgy techniques
1. Pulverization 2. Blending or mixing
3. Screening 4. Heat Treatment
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the above steps
(a) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4 (b) 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
(c) 4 – 1 – 3 – 2 (d) 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
Q71. The tooling cost is highest in which one of the following methods of plastic
processing
(a) Extrusion
(b) Casting
(c) Compression moulding
(d) Injection moulding
Q72. Which one of the following is the correct statement The accuracy of time
estimates in work sampling depends upon
(a) Type of activity only
(b) Number of observations only
(c) Randomness of observation only
(d) All of the above
Consider the following statements:
1. In a four-bar linkage, if coupler is the shortest link, a double-rocker
mechanism will result.
2. In a four-bar linkage, if crank is the shortest link and anyone of the
adjacent links is the frame, two different crank-rocker mechanisms
result.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
www.iesacademy.com Email: iesacademy@yahoo.com Page-11
__
25, 1 st Floor, Jia Sarai, Near IIT. New Delhi-16 Ph: 011-26537570, 9810958290

India’s No 1
IES Academy
IES-2010
ME (Paper-II)
Q73. Consider the following statements:
1. A prismatic pair can be thought of as the limit of a revolute pair.
2. The number and types of links and connections alone do not give the
true description of any mechanism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q74. Consider the following statements:
1. An isochronous governor is infinitely insensitive.
2. The phenomenon of hunting in centrifugal governors is independent of
the natural frequency of oscillations of the governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q75. Consider the following statements about radial cams:
1. For a roller follower, the radius of the prime circle is equal to the radius
of the base circle.
2. During a complete rotation of a radial cam, the pressure angle remains
constant.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q76. Which one of the following statements is correct
For an involute profiled gear, the meshing rack has
(a) An involute profile
(b) A straight tooth profile
(c) A cycloidal profile
(d) A helical profile
Q77. What is the number of degrees of freedom for a rear-axle differential of an
automobile
(a) Zero (b) One (c) Two (d) Three
Q78. Coulomb damping results from which one of the following
(a) Dry friction between moving surfaces
(b) Drag between a moving body and its fluid environment
(c) Internal friction within a material
(d) Radiation of energy into the environment
Q79. In a viscously damped vibratory system with harmonic excitation, if ω
1 and
ω
2 are the half power points, ω
n is the natural frequency andξ is the
damping factor, which one of the following is correct
(a) ( ω
2 - ω
1) / ω
n = 2 ξ (b) ( ω
2 + ω 1 ) / ω
n = ξ
2
(c) ( ω
2 -ω 1) / ω
n = ξ (d) ( ω
2 -ω 1) / 3 ω
n = ξ
Q80. For a plane mechanism, an instantaneous centre of rotation is associated
with which of the following
(a) Fixed link only
(b) Fixed link and one moving link only
www.iesacademy.com Email: iesacademy@yahoo.com Page-12
__
25, 1 st Floor, Jia Sarai, Near IIT. New Delhi-16 Ph: 011-26537570, 9810958290

India’s No 1
IES Academy
IES-2010
(c) Two moving links only
(d) Any two moving links or a moving and fixed link
ME (Paper-II)
Q81. Consider the following statements:
1. The manufacturing equipment used in batch production is generalpurpose
but designed for higher rates of production.
2. The machine tools used in batch manufacture are not combined with
specially designed jigs and fixtures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q82. Consider the following statements:
1. In product-flow layout, the arrangement of facilities within the plant is
relatively inflexible.
2. Process layout is typical in job shops and batch production.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q83. A certain part is produced in a batch size of 50 units and requires a
sequence of 8 operations in the plant. The average set-up time and average
non-operation time per operation are 3 hours and 7 hours, respectively. The
average operative time per machine per part is 6 minutes. What is the
manufacturing lead time
(a) 100 hours (b) 120 hours (c) 150 hours (d) 180 hours
Q84. The factory overhead rate is 125% and direct labour cost for a job is Rs. 900/-
What is the factory overhead charge
(a) Rs.360/- (b) Rs.720/- (c) Rs.1125/- (d) Rs.2250/-
Q85. Break-even analysis can be used for which of the following
1. Profit analysis
2. Production method cost comparison
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q86. Consider the following statements in respect of operations planning:
1. Aggregate planning addresses the supply side of the firm's ability to
meet the demand.
2. The purpose of Master Production Scheduling (MPS) is to meet the
demand for individual products in the product group.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q87. Consider the following steps in a line balancing problem:
1. Apply an assignment heuristic to assign tasks to each work station
2. Identify the precedence requirements
3. Calculate the required minimum number of work stations.
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the above steps
(a) 2 - 3 – 1 (b) 1 - 2 – 3 (c) 2 - 1 – 3 (d) 1 - 3 - 2
www.iesacademy.com Email: iesacademy@yahoo.com Page-13
__
25, 1 st Floor, Jia Sarai, Near IIT. New Delhi-16 Ph: 011-26537570, 9810958290

India’s No 1
IES Academy
IES-2010
ME (Paper-II)
Q88. Which of the following is/are advantage(s) of cellular manufacture
1. Lower work-in-progress inventories
2. Fewer tooling changes
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q89. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given
below the lists:
List-I
(Contribution)
A. Specialization of Labour in
List-II
(Contributor)
1. Henry Gantt
manufacturing
2. George Dantzing
B. Scheduling techniques
C. Linear programming
3. Adam Smith
4. W.E. Deming
D. Quality and productivity
Applications from Japan
www.iesacademy.com Email: iesacademy@yahoo.com Page-14
__
Code:
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 2 4 3 1
Q90. The following data is available from time study on a job:
Observed time = 0·75 min., rating = 110%, relaxation allowance = 10%,
personal allowance = 3%, delay allowance = 2%.
All allowances are expressed in % of normal time.
What is the approximate standard time for this job
(a) 0·95 minutes (b) 0·625 minutes (c) 0·825 minutes (d) 0·74 minutes
Q91. A factory producing 150 electric bulbs a day, involves direct material cost of
Rs. 250/-, direct labour cost of Rs. 200/- and factory overheads of Rs. 225/-.
Assuming a profit of 10% of the selling price, and overheads 30% of the
factory cost, what is the selling price of one electric bulb
(a) Rs. 6·50 (b) Rs. 12·50 (c) Rs. 18·50 (d) Rs. 21·00
Q92. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given
below the lists:
List-I
(Technique)
A. Time study
B. Work sampling
C. Analytical estimation
D. MTM
List-lI
(Suitable for)
1. Short-cycle non-repetitive jobs
2. Manual operations
3. Short-cycle repetitive jobs
4. Long-cycle jobs/heterogeneous
operations/operations involving team work
Code:
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 3 4 1 2
25, 1 st Floor, Jia Sarai, Near IIT. New Delhi-16 Ph: 011-26537570, 9810958290

India’s No 1
IES Academy
IES-2010
ME (Paper-II)
Q93. For a manual operation, observed time data are given below:
Recorded time : 15 minute
Rating of the worker : 80%
Personal allowance : 0.6 minute
Basic fatigue allowance : 0.8 minute
Contingency work
Allowance : 1.2 minute
Unavoidable delay
Allowance : 1.1 minute
What is the standard time for the operation
(a) 16.4 minute (b) 17.5 minute (c) 18.5 minute (d) None of the above
Q94. Why is a floating position of holding fixture in a rotary transfer device
used
(a) To improve the accuracy of location.
(b) To reduce the tendency of over index.
(c) To reduce the cycle time.
(d) To improve upon acceleration and deceleration characteristics.
Q95. Which of the following are the characteristics of cold working of metals
1. Stresses are set up in the metal that remain unless removed by
subsequent heat treatment
2. Coarse grains are refined
3. Strength and hardness are increased
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Q96. What is the distance through which the cutter has to move before the full
depth of cut is acquired in milling
(a) d( D− d)
(b) DD ( − d)
(c) ( D− d) d /2 (d) DD ( − d) /2
where D = diameter of the milling cutter and
d = depth of cut.
Q97. Crater wear occurs mainly due to which one of the following
(a) Adhesion (b) Diffusion (c) Oxidation (d) Abrasion
Q98. Which one of the following is the process intermediate to compression and
injection moulding
(a) Reaction moulding
(b) Transfer moulding
(c) Pelleting
(d) Preheating
Q99. Powder metallurgy process involves which of the following
1. Converting metals such as iron etc. into powder form.
2. Blending powders of metals, then compacting and compressing to
desired shape at room temperature.
3. Heating the compressed articles to a temperature above melting point of
metal.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
www.iesacademy.com Email: iesacademy@yahoo.com Page-15
__
25, 1 st Floor, Jia Sarai, Near IIT. New Delhi-16 Ph: 011-26537570, 9810958290

India’s No 1
IES Academy
IES-2010
Q100. Which one of the following statements is correct
In green sand moulding process, uniform ramming leads to
(a) Less sand expansion type of casting defect
(b) Greater dimensional stability of the casting
(c) Uniform flow of molten metal into the mould cavity
(d) Less chance of gas porosity
ME (Paper-II)
Q101. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of welding of two
pieces in upset welding
1. The ends to be welded should touch each other before current is
switched on.
2. The ends to be welded should touch each other after current is switched
on.
3. The two pieces have to be pressed together after desired welding
temperature is reached.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 only (d) 2 and 3
Q102. Which one of the following statements is correct
In the orthogonal cutting system, the cutting edge is:
(a) Perpendicular to shear plane
(b) Perpendicular to direction of tool travel
(c) Perpendicular to direction of depth of cut
(d) In line with direction of tool travel
Q103. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of ceramic tools
(a) Produced by sintering process
(b) Hot hardness up to 1400°C
(c) Exhibit high coefficient of friction with most work materials
(d) Tool tips are highly brittle
Q104. In metals subjected to cold forming, what is strain hardening due to
(a) Slip mechanism
(b) Twinning mechanism
(c) Dislocation mechanism
(d) Fracture mechanism
Q105. A thin cylindrical shell 500 mm in diameter and 25 mm thick having E =
2.0× 10 5
2
N/ mm and μ = 0.25, is subjected to internal fluid pressure of 20
2
N/ mm . What is unit change in volume of the shell
3
(a) 4 x 10 − 3
(b) 2.5 x 10 − 3
(c) 2 x 10 − (d) 1.5 x 10 −3
Q106. Assertion (A): Herringbone gears are used for high speed and heavy duty
speed reduction.
Reason (R): These gears produce low axial thrust on their shafts.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
www.iesacademy.com Email: iesacademy@yahoo.com Page-16
__
25, 1 st Floor, Jia Sarai, Near IIT. New Delhi-16 Ph: 011-26537570, 9810958290

India’s No 1
IES Academy
IES-2010
ME (Paper-II)
Q107. Assertion (A): A shaper is unsuitable for generating flat surfaces on very
large parts.
Reason (R): The ram has limitations on the stroke and its overhang.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q108. Assertion (A): Complex shapes which are difficult to produce by any other
method are possible by precision investment casting.
Reason (R): In precision investment casting, the pattern is withdraw by
melting it.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q109. Assertion (A): Production planning and control in continuous production is
usually far simpler than in job or batch production.
Reason (R): Extensive effort is required for detailed planning before
production starts, but both scheduling and control need not usually be very
elaborate.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q110. Assertion (A): Often, the cutting velocity determined by optimization has to
be modified.
Reason (R): Because only finite number of speeds are available on the
machine tool.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q111. Assertion (A): Plane state of stress does not necessarily result in a plane
state of strain.
Reason (R): A uniaxial state of stress in general produces a 3-dimensional
strain state.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q112. Assertion (A): Capital budgeting is a technique for using the resources more
efficiently.
Reason (R): Time value of money is to be taken into account when various
options are considered.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
www.iesacademy.com Email: iesacademy@yahoo.com Page-17
__
25, 1 st Floor, Jia Sarai, Near IIT. New Delhi-16 Ph: 011-26537570, 9810958290

India’s No 1
IES Academy
IES-2010
ME (Paper-II)
www.iesacademy.com Email: iesacademy@yahoo.com Page-18
__
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q113. Assertion (A): Job shop production uses general purpose machine tools and
other related equipment.
Reason (R): The genera1 purpose machine tools have lot of non-productive
time during operations and thus the output results into high cost per piece.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q114. Assertion (A): Reducing set-up time decreases economic batch size.
Reason (R): Flexibility of production increases customer satisfaction.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q115. Assertion (A): A man pushes a stationary truck to the utmost of his power
but does not move it; he does no work.
Reason (R): The work done necessarily implies motion.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q116. Assertion (A): Hunting of a governor is due to its poor sensitivity.
Reason (R): Hunting is due to resonance condition arrived at when the
frequency of fluctuations in engine speed happens to coincide with the
natural frequency of oscillations of the governor.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q117. Assertion (A): In a Swiss type automatic lathe, the turret is given
longitudinal feed for each tool in a specific order with suitable indexing.
Reason (R): A turret is a multiple tool holder 'to facilitate machining with
each tool by indexing without the need to change tools.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q118. Assertion (A): Workability is a term applied to forging, rolling and
extrusion.
25, 1 st Floor, Jia Sarai, Near IIT. New Delhi-16 Ph: 011-26537570, 9810958290

India’s No 1
IES Academy
IES-2010
ME (Paper-II)
Reason (R): These-processes are sheet forming processes in which the
forces applied are primarily tensile.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q119. Assertion (A): Indirect 'cost is more difficult to assess than direct cost.
Reason (R): Overhead cost apportioning is approximate and time
consuming.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Q120. Assertion (A): The manufacturing cell typically reduces the material
handling cost of product going through the process.
Reason (R): Machines for a process are not located in sequences, one next to
another.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
www.iesacademy.com Email: iesacademy@yahoo.com Page-19
__
25, 1 st Floor, Jia Sarai, Near IIT. New Delhi-16 Ph: 011-26537570, 9810958290