Science 30 January 2000 Diploma Examination

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January 2000 





Science 30 


Grade 12 Diploma Examination 











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30 Science 30 Science 30 Science 30 Science 30 Science 30 Science 30 Science 30 Science 30

January 2000 

Science 30 

Grade 12 Diploma Examination 

Description 

Time: This examination was developed 

to be completed in 2.5 h; however, you 

may take an additional 0.5 h to complete 

the examination. 

This is a closed-book examination 

consisting of 

• 40 multiple-choice and 12 numericalresponse 

questions of equal value, 

worth 65% of the examination 

• 1 short-answer question and 2 longanswer 

questions, worth 35% of the 

examination. 

This examination contains sets 

of related questions. 

A set of questions may contain 

multiple-choice and/or numericalresponse 

and/or written-response 

questions. 

A science data booklet is provided for 

your reference. 

Note: The perforated pages at the back of 

this booklet may be torn out and used for 

your rough work. No marks will be given 

for work done on the tear-out pages. 

Instructions 

• You are expected to provide your own 

scientific calculator. 

• Use only an HB pencil for the 

machine-scored answer sheet. 

• Fill in the information required on the 

answer sheet and the examination 

booklet as directed by the presiding 

examiner. 

• Read each question carefully. 

• Consider all numbers used in the 

examination to be the result of a 

measurement or observation. 

• When performing calculations, use the 

values of the constants provided in the 

data booklet. Do not use the values 

programmed in your calculator. 

• If you wish to change an answer, erase 

all traces of your first answer. 

• Do not fold the answer sheet. 

• The presiding examiner will collect 

your answer sheet and examination 

booklet and send them to Alberta 

Learning. 

• Now turn this page and read the 

detailed instructions for answering 

machine-scored and written-response 

questions.

Multiple Choice 

• Decide which of the choices best 

completes the statement or answers 

the question. 

• Locate that question number on the 

separate answer sheet provided and 

fill in the circle that corresponds to 

your choice. 

Example 

This examination is for the subject of 

A. science 

B. biology 

C. physics 

D. chemistry 

Answer Sheet 

A B C D 

Numerical Response 

• Record your answer on the answer 

sheet provided by writing it in the 

boxes and then filling in the 

corresponding circles. 

• If an answer is a value between 0 and 1 

(e.g., 0.25), then be sure to record the 0 

before the decimal place. 

• Enter the first digit of your answer 

in the left-hand box and leave any 

unused boxes blank. 

Examples 

Calculation Question and Solution 

The average of the values 21.0, 25.5, and 

24.5 is _________. 

(Record your answer to three digits in the 

numerical-response section on the answer 

sheet.) 

Average = (21.0 + 25.5 + 24.5)/3 

= 23.666 

= 23.7 (rounded to three digits) 

Record 23.7 on the 

answer sheet 2 3 . 7 

. . 

0 0 0 0 

1 1 1 1 

2 2 2 2 

3 3 3 3 

4 4 4 4 

5 5 5 5 

6 6 6 6 

7 7 7 7 

8 8 8 8 

9 9 9 9 

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Written Response 

Correct-Order Question and Solution 

When the following subjects are arranged in 

alphabetical order, the order is ____, ____, 

____, and ____ . 

1 physics 

2 biology 

3 science 

4 chemistry 

(Record all four digits of your answer in the 

numerical-response section on the answer 

sheet.) 

Answer: 2413 

Record 2413 on the 

answer sheet 

2 4 1 3 

. . 

0 0 0 0 

1 1 1 1 

2 2 2 2 

3 3 3 3 

4 4 4 4 

5 5 5 5 

6 6 6 6 

7 7 7 7 

8 8 8 8 

9 9 9 9 

• Write your answers in the examination 

booklet as neatly as possible. 

• For full marks, your answers must 

address all aspects of the question. 

• Descriptions and/or explanations of 

concepts must be correct and include 

pertinent ideas, diagrams, calculations, 

and formulas. 

• Your answers must be presented in a 

well-organized manner using complete 

sentences, correct units, and significant 

digits where appropriate. 

• Relevant scientific, technological, and/or 

societal concepts and examples must be 

identified and made explicit. 

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Personnel in a medical clinic must understand body systems and have knowledge 

of drugs and chemistry. 

1. Treatment in a low-air-pressure chamber causes a person’s body to produce more 

oxygen-carrying blood cells, which are called 

A. platelets 

B. helper T cells 

C. red blood cells 

D. white blood cells 

2. Rapid multiplication of bacterial cells in a person’s body could be the result of an 

insufficient number of 

A. antigens 

B. platelets 

C. red blood cells 

D. white blood cells 

3. The skin on the back of a patient’s hand must be cleaned thoroughly before an 

intravenous needle is inserted into it because inserting the needle 

A. stimulates B cells to produce antibodies 

B. immunizes the patient against disease-causing organisms that live on the skin 

C. stimulates the sensory receptors in the back of the hand, which send a pain signal 

to the brain 

D. produces a break in the skin, which can let disease-causing organisms into the 

patient’s hand 

1

4. Which of the following diagrams represents the passage of blood through the body, 

heart, and lungs 

A. B. 

Lungs 

Body 

Body 

Lungs 

C. D. 

Lungs 

Lungs 

Body 

Body 

5. A blood vessel is classified as an artery if it carries 

A. oxygenated blood 

B. deoxygenated blood 

C. blood toward the heart 

D. blood away from the heart 

2

– 

– 

Use the following information to answer the next question. 

Four Substances Transported by Blood 

1 Carbon dioxide 

2 Dissolved waste 

3 Glucose 

4 Oxygen 


1. Match the substances transported by blood, as numbered above, with the appropriate 

descriptions given below. Use each number only once. 

Is an organic nutrient ______ (Record in the first column.) 

Is removed in lungs ______ (Record in the second column.) 

Is removed in kidneys ______ (Record in the third column.) 

Is required for respiration ______ (Record in the fourth column.) 

(Record your answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.) 

____________________ 

6. The pain reliever salicylic acid is a carboxylic acid whose organic functional group is 

A. 

O 

= 

R–C – 

OH 

B. 

H 

– 

O 

= 

R–C–O–C–R 

H 

C. 

H 

– 

R–C–R 

OH 

D. 

= 

R–C – 

O 

H 

3

7. Because salicylic acid is a weak acid, when mixed with water, its properties include a 

A. low degree of dissociation in water and a pH of less than 7 

B. high degree of dissociation in water and a pH of less than 7 

C. low degree of dissociation in water and a pH of greater than 7 

D. high degree of dissociation in water and a pH of greater than 7 

8. Salicylic acid may be used to form a buffer. The action of a buffer 

A. increases pH when a base is added to it 

B. decreases pH when an acid is added to it 

C. maintains a constant pH when an acid or a base is added to it 

D. causes large changes in pH when an acid or base is added to it 

4

The exploration of space adds to our knowledge of the universe and has produced 

a number of theories about it. 

9. According to the steady state theory and the big bang theory, the universe is 

expanding. Evidence supporting the theory of an expanding universe is that the 

electromagnetic radiation collected from distant galaxies 

A. undergoes red shift 

B. undergoes blue shift 

C. is emitted in a wide range of frequencies 

D. is emitted in a narrow range of frequencies 

10. In a recent space shuttle experiment, power was produced by pulling a very long 

conducting wire behind the shuttle through Earth’s magnetic field. The 

phenomenon that was being studied likely involved the 

A. creation of a magnetic field through induction 

B. interaction of electrical and gravitational fields 

C. interaction of magnetic and gravitational fields 

D. creation of an electrical current through induction 

11. Objects sent into orbit around Earth are known as artificial satellites. Natural 

satellites orbiting around planets are known as 

A. moons 

B. galaxies 

C. constellations 

D. solar systems 

5

12. Certain types of radio waves are used for communicating with spacecraft. Radio 

signals may be modified through amplitude modulation (AM) or through frequency 

modulation (FM). Which of the following diagrams represents a radio signal with a 

changing frequency 

A. 

B. 

C. 

D. 


2. Mars has a mass of 6.42 × 10 23 kg. When a probe orbiting Mars is 3.52 × 10 6 m 

from the centre of the planet, the gravitational field strength of Mars acting upon the 

probe is _________N/kg. 

(Record your answer to three digits in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.) 

6


Field Graph 

Strength of field 

Distance 

Short Answer – 5% 

Electrical and gravitational fields have many properties in common. One such 

property is that the strength of these fields varies with distance. On the grid above, 

sketch the line that demonstrates the relationship between the strength of a field and 

distance, and, in a few sentences, describe this relationship. 

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13. The composition of Mars’ atmosphere has been determined through spectroscopic 

analysis. The visible spectrum of Mars contains narrow, dark lines caused by 

A. refraction of light in space 

B. diffraction of light between Mars and Earth 

C. dispersion of electromagnetic radiation by Earth’s magnetic field 

D. gases in Mars’ atmosphere absorbing certain electromagnetic radiation 


Atmospheric Composition of Planets 

Venus Earth Mars 

Nitrogen 3% 77% 3% 

Oxygen almost zero 21% almost zero 

Carbon dioxide 97% almost zero 95% 

Other gases almost zero 2% 2% 

Relative atmospheric pressure 90 1 0.01 

14. Compared with Mars and Venus, Earth’s atmosphere contains a very small amount 

of carbon dioxide. This is likely because 

A. most of Earth’s carbon dioxide is dissolved in polar ice 

B. green plants on Earth consume carbon dioxide and produce oxygen 

C. Earth’s weak gravitational force allows carbon dioxide to escape into space 

D. Earth’s proximity to the sun heats the atmosphere enough to decompose the 

carbon dioxide 

15. Since astronauts in space are exposed to increased radiation, they may have an 

increased incidence of genetic mutations. A genetic mutation can be defined as 

A. non-disjunction during meiosis 

B. a change in the base sequence of DNA 

C. a change in the number of chromosomes in a gamete 

D. the failure of sugar-phosphate bonds to form in DNA 

8


One strand of a small segment of DNA has the sequence 

A - A - T - C - T - C - G - T - A 

16. The sequence of the complementary strand is 

A. G - G - C - T - C - T - A - C - G 

B. T - T - A - G - A - G - C - A - T 

C. C - C - G - A - G - A - T - G - C 

D. A - A - T - C - T - C - G - T - A 

____________________ 


3. One type of damaging radiation that may be a hazard in space has a wavelength 

of 5.10 × 10 –13 m. The frequency of this radiation is ______× 10 20 Hz. 


9

A scientific expedition travelled to the Arctic to study environmental issues. 

17. Before leaving, expedition members were vaccinated. A number of specific 

vaccines were required because bacteria and viruses differ in 

A. size 

B. their immunity 

C. the antigens they contain 

D. the antibodies they contain 

18. One of the vaccinations that expedition members received was to protect them 

against the flu. They will need to continue getting new vaccinations each flu season 

because 

A. the vaccines break down very quickly 

B. these viruses readily produce different strains 

C. the body filters the vaccines out of the body in a short time 

D. memory T cells attack the vaccines and destroy the protective properties 

19. As they left their airplane, expedition members experienced a sharp glare of 

sunlight reflecting off the Arctic ice. The reflected glare can be reduced by 

wearing protective glasses with a 

A. convex lens 

B. concave lens 

C. polarizing filter 

D. magnifying glass 

10


A reflex arc dictates the eyes’ response to bright light. 

Structures in Reflex Arc 

1 interneuron 

2 effector 

3 sensory neuron 

4 motor neuron 


4. When the eye responds to a bright flash of light, electrical impulses move through 

the structures of the reflex arc in the sequence _____, _____, _____, _____. 

(Record your four-digit answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.) 


Diagram of the Human Eye 

Light 

rays 

1 

2 

3 

4 


5. Match each of the structures of the eye numbered above with its appropriate named below. 

Retina ______ (Record in the first column.) 

Iris ______ (Record in the second column.) 

Cornea ______ (Record in the third column.) 

Lens ______ (Record in the fourth column.) 


11

20. Expedition members titrated a 10.0 mL sample of rain water with a 1.00 × 10 –3 mol/L 

sodium hydroxide solution. The volume of sodium hydroxide required for their 

titration was 1.75 mL. The hydronium ion concentration, [H 3 O + (aq)], in the 

sample was 

A. 1.75 × 10 –4 mol/L 

B. 1.75 mol/L 

C. 5.71 × 10 –4 mol/L 

D. 5.71 mol/L 

21. The expedition members found that the pH of rain water in an area decreased from 

7 to 5 over a period of time. This meant that the hydronium ion concentration, 

[H 3 O + (aq)], of the rainwater had 

A. increased by a factor of 2 

B. decreased by a factor of 2 

C. increased by a factor of 100 

D. decreased by a factor of 100 

22. Expedition members added a sample of rainwater that had a pH of 4.7 to a mixture 

of the indicators thymol blue, phenolphthalein, and alizarin yellow R. The colour 

of the resulting solution was 

A. green 

B. brown 

C. yellow 

D. orange 

12


6. The pH of a water sample that has a hydronium ion concentration, [H 3 O + (aq)], of 

3.0 × 10 –5 mol/L is ______. 



Some Pollutants 

1 Dioxins and furans 

2 Phosphates 

3 NO x gases 

4 Lead 


7. Some pollutants accumulate in the Arctic. Match each of the pollutants numbered 

above with the appropriate source given below. Use each number only once. 

Fertilizers ______ (Record in the first column.) 

Batteries ______ (Record in the second column.) 

Automobiles ______ (Record in the third column.) 

Pesticides ______ (Record in the fourth column.) 


23. The two main contributors to the formation of acid rain are 

A. methane and ozone 

B. ozone and nitrogen oxides 

C. sulphur oxides and methane 

D. nitrogen oxides and sulphur oxides 

13


Some Effects of Atmospheric Pollutants 

I 

II 

III 

IV 

V 

Corrosion of metal surfaces 

Destruction of the ozone layer 

Deterioration of building materials 

Death of vegetation 

Global warming 

24. Which of the effects listed above are caused by acidic deposition 

A. Effects I, II, and IV 

B. Effects I, III, and IV 

C. Effects II, III, and V 

D. Effects II, IV, and V 

____________________ 

25. Suspended particles were among the pollutants studied by the expedition. In the 

atmosphere, suspended particles can contribute to lower global temperatures by 

A. reflecting incoming electromagnetic radiation into space 

B. refracting incoming electromagnetic radiation into space 

C. polarizing incoming electromagnetic radiation, thereby increasing the amount 

of energy Earth receives 

D. filtering high-energy electromagnetic radiation, thereby increasing the amount 

of energy Earth receives 

14

The expedition boarded a small submarine to continue their exploration 

of the Arctic. 


An Electrical Circuit Aboard the Submarine 

I II III 

IV 

Navigation instrument 

Fuse 

Power source 

26. An expedition member investigated the submarine’s electrical circuit because none of 

the navigational instruments worked. He found that one of the fuses was burned out. 

The burned out fuse is labelled 

A. I 

B. II 

C. III 

D. IV 

27. A diode is a device in an electric circuit. It permits electrons to travel in only one 

direction. A structure in the circulatory system that has a similar function to that of 

a diode in an electronic circuit is a 

A. vein 

B. valve 

C. artery 

D. capillary 

15

Use the following information to answer the next three questions. 

Circuit for Trilight Lamp 

120 Ω 

Switch I 

240 Ω 

Switch II 

110 V 

The control switch on a trilight lamp can control three different light 

intensities (high, medium, and low), depending on the combination of 

switches activated. 

28. When switches I and II are closed, the total resistance in the above circuit is 

A. 0.0125 Ω 

B. 3.00 Ω 

C. 80.0 Ω 

D. 360 Ω 

29. The switch combination that will draw the largest current is 

A. I open, II open 

B. I open, II closed 

C. I closed, II open 

D. I closed, II closed 

16

30. As current passes through a light filament, the temperature of the filament 

increases and its colour changes from 

A. red to yellow to white 

B. red to white to yellow 

C. white to yellow to red 

D. yellow to white to red 

31. A nuclear-powered submarine is most likely fueled by 

A. ethanol 

B. uranium 

C. methane 

D. hydrogen 

32. A nuclear reactor produces high-voltage electrical energy that must be stepped 

down for use in a submarine. To decrease the voltage in the submarine’s circuits, 

the engineers would use 

A. a resistor 

B. a generator 

C. an alternator 

D. a transformer 


8. An 18.0 A welder is used for maintenance aboard the submarine. When plugged 

into a 220 V circuit, the resistance of the welder is ______Ω. 


17

The production and use of energy is one of the foremost concerns in attempts to 

achieve sustainable development. 


Four Energy Transformations 

1 Matter is converted to energy in a fission reactor. 

2 Water releases energy as it turns to ice. 

3 Gasoline burns at high temperatures in a car engine. 

4 During a fusion reaction, He 

2 3 is formed. 


9. These energy transformations, ranked from least to greatest amount of energy 

released per gram of reactants used, are _____, _____, _____, and _____. 

least greatest 


18

Use the following information to answer the next four questions. 

CANDU Reactor 

Reactor Building 

1 Steam 

Turbine Building 

Coolent 

(heavy water) 

Steam 

2 Turbine 

4 Generator 

Calandria 

3 Fuel 

bundles 

Moderator 

(heavy 

water) 

Control rods 

Circulating 

water 

Ordinary 

water 

5 Cooling 

water 


10. The order of energy conversions in the above reactor, listed from the first conversion 

until useable energy leaves the reactor, is _____, _____, _____, and _____. 


19

33. The alpha decay of radium-226 is represented by 

A. 226 

Ra → 

222 

Rn + He 

2 4 

88 

86 

B. 226 

Ra → 

222 

Rn + 

4 4 He 

88 

84 

C. 226 

Rd → 

222 

Po + 

4 4 He 

88 

84 

D. 226 

Rd → 

222 

Po + 

2 4 He 

88 

84 


11. The energy produced when 0.220 kg of nuclear fuel is transformed completely 

into energy is __________ × 10 16 J. 


34. An environmental concern that may be associated with coal but not with nuclear 

power generation is 

A. acidic deposition 

B. thermal pollution 

C. pollution from phosphates 

D. depletion of the ozone layer 

20


Conventional Power Plant 

35% 

Electrical 

power 

Fuel in 

100% 

Conventional 

power plant 

Waste 

heat 

65% 


12. The efficiency of the conventional power plant is _______%. 

(Record your answer to two digits in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.) 

21


Geothermal Power Station 

This simplified diagram represents a geothermal power station. Pumps 

drive cold water to the hot rocks, where it is heated, and steam is returned to 

the surface. 

Power 

station 

Steam 

(180°C) 

Cold 

water 

(20°C) 

Rocks 

shattered 

by explosives 

(250°C) 

Water is forced 

through the hot 

shattered rocks 

35. The steam that returns to the power station at a temperature of 180°C is used to 

A. turn a motor to produce electricity 

B. turn a generator to produce electricity 

C. transform solar energy into electric energy 

D. transform chemical energy into electric energy 

22


Combustion of Octane 

C 8 H 18(l) + 2 25 O 2(g) → 8 CO 2(g) + 9 H 2 O (g) 

36. Octane, (C 8 H 18(l) ), may be used as a fuel in small generators. For each mole of 

octane burned, the amount of energy released is 

A. 250.0 kJ 

B. 385.3 kJ 

C. 885.3 kJ 

D. 5074.2 kJ 

23

Scientists continue their efforts to develop effective pesticides that are 

environmentally friendly. 

Use the following information to answer the next two questions. 

The larvae of leaf-folder moths feed on the leaves of young rice plants. In a 

particular area, Asian farmers controlled leaf damage by spraying the rice 

plants with methylparathion. In order to determine if spraying the 

insecticide had an effect on the yield of rice, researchers sprayed only half 

the plants in each field. They found that plants that lost leaves to the larvae 

produced the same yield of rice as the sprayed plants. After two seasons 

without spraying, the population of many types of insects, including the 

crickets and beetles that feed on the larvae, increased significantly. Larger 

predators such as frogs and fish also increased in number. 

37. In this test, the manipulated variable and responding variable were, respectively, 

A. leaf-folder larvae and yield of rice 

B. yield of rice and application of insecticide 

C. application of insecticide and yield of rice 

D. leaf-folder larvae and application of insecticide 

38. Although not conclusive, the observations made by the researchers indicate that the 

spraying program may be 

A. unnecessary 

B. cost-effective 

C. target-specific 

D. environmentally friendly 

24

39. The pesticide methylparathion is a cholinesterase inhibitor. The role of 

cholinesterase is to 

A. absorb acetylcholine 

B. release acetylcholine 

C. break down acetylcholine 

D. manufacture acetylcholine 


A Neuron 

I 

II 

III 

IV 

40. Acetylcholine is produced at the part of the neuron labelled 

A. I 

B. II 

C. III 

D. IV 

The written-response questions follow on the next page. 

25


The caterpillar of the diamondback moth is controlled by treating it with an 

insecticide called Bt. A caterpillar population in an area treated with Bt is 

becoming resistant to Bt. 

You are given 10 male diamondback moths and 10 unfertilized female 

diamondback moths from an area that has never been treated with Bt 

insecticide and another group of 10 male diamondback moths and 10 

unfertilized female diamondback moths from a population that has developed 

resistance to Bt. 

Long Answer – 15% 

1. a. Describe an experiment that you could carry out to determine whether or not the 

resistance is due to a recessive allele (a) or a dominant allele (A). Describe the 

results you would expect if the resistance trait is recessive and the results you 

would expect if the resistance trait is dominant. Use diagrams, tables, or Punnett 

squares to clarify your answer. 

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b. If an insecticide must be used, describe desirable characteristics that it should have. 

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Turn the page to begin the next question. 

27


Electrical energy can be generated in power stations from a number of 

different sources, such as 

1. nuclear (fission) power 

2. wind power 

3. tidal power 

4. hydroelectric power 

Long Answer – 15% 

2. Select one of the sources listed above and explain how electrical energy is produced. 

Start with the origin of the energy source you have chosen and continue your 

explanation to the point where electrical energy is produced. Include all energy 

transformations. Describe the advantages and disadvantages of generating electricity 

from this source. 

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You have now completed the examination. 

If you have time, you may wish to check your answers. 

29

Tear-out 

Page 

No marks will be given for work done on this page. 

Fold and tear along perforation.

Science 30 January 2000 

Keys 

Sample Answers 

Scoring Guides 

Multiple-Choice 

1. C 21. C 

2. D 22. C 

3. D 23. D 

4. C 24. B 

5. D 25. A 

6. A 26. A 

7. A 27. B 

8. C 28. C 

9. A 29. D 

10. D 30. A 

11. A 31. B 

12. B 32. D 

13. D 33. A 

14. B 34. A 

15. B 35. B 

16. B 36. D 

17. C 37. C 

18. B 38. A 

19. C 39. C 

20. A 40. D 

Numerical-Response 

1. 3124 7. 2431 

2. 3.45 or 3.46 8. 12.2 

3. 5.88 9. 2314 or 2341 

4. 3142 10. 3124 

5. 4213 11. 1.98 

6. 4.5 or 4.52 12. 35 or 35.0 

02/08/00

January 2000 SA - Sample Answer 

The force of a field decreases with distance. If the distance is 2X the force will be onequarter. 

If the distance is 3X the force will be one-ninth etc. 

Score 

4 

Standard 

of 

Excellence 

3 

2 

Acceptable 

Standard 

January 2000 SA - Scoring Guide 

Scoring Descriptions 

The response reflects an accurate understanding of field strength. The diagrams are 

appropriate to the concept of field theory. 

The response reflects an adequate understanding of field strength. The diagrams 

apply to the concept of field theory. 

The response reflects a sketchy understanding of field strength. The diagrams 

generally apply to the to the concept of field theory. 

The response reflects a poor understanding of field strength. The diagrams do not 

apply to the concept of field theory. 

1 

0 The response does not address any of the major points of the question at an 

appropriate level for a 30-level course. 

02/08/00

January 2000 LA 1 - Sample Answer 

a. I would cross the untreated males with resistant females. The offspring would be treated with the 

pesticide to see how many are resistant. The following cross would occur if the untreated moths were 

heterozygous and the resistant moths were homozygous recessive. 

About half of the offspring would be resistant. 

b. An insecticide should not kill organisms it is not intended to kill. Beneficial insects and birds should be 

protected. This will minimize the damage to the ecosystem. 

The insecticide should break down quickly in the environment so that it does not accumulate in the 

tissue of other animals. 

Also the insecticide should not move easily to areas away from where it is being used. This will protect 

other organisms from its effects. 

The insecticide should not be toxic to humans and it would also be desirable that it be inexpensive and 

easy to apply. 

January 2000 LA 1 - Scoring Guide 

SCORE 

4 

Standard of 

Excellence 

3 

2 

Acceptable 

Standard 

1 

0 

NR 

SCORING DESCRIPTIONS 

The response is complete, well organized, and reflects thorough understanding and 

logical consistency of thought. The description of the experiment is logical and 

realistic. The expected results closely match the design of the experiment. Two or 

three desirable characteristics of an insecticide are accurately and completely 

described. 

The response is mostly complete, organized, and reflects correct understanding. 

The description of the experiment is logical. The expected results mostly match the 

design of the experiment. Two or three desirable characteristics of an insecticide are 

accurately described. 

The response is organized, and is generally logical and consistent. The description of 

the experiment is adequate. The expected results generally match the design of the 

experiment. One or two desirable characteristics of an insecticide are described. 

The response is incomplete, disorganized, and reflects poor understanding. The 

description of the experiment is not adequate. The expected results don't match the 

design of the experiment. Desirable characteristics of an insecticide are lacking. 

The response does not address any of the major points of the question at an appropriate 

level for a 30-level course. 

No response. 

02/08/00

January 2000 LA 2 - Sample Answer 

Wind power is obtained by using a turbine or windmill that is turned by the wind. The 

turbine turns a generator that produces electricity. 

The energy transformations start with the sun's rays heating earth's surface. Heat from 

the surface of the earth heats the air above it. This heated air is lighter than surrounding 

cold air. When the cold air pushes the warm air out of the way, wind is produced. 

The advantages of wind power include the fact that it is renewable and non-polluting. 

Disadvantages include the fact that it can produce electricity on a commercial scale in 

only a few areas where the wind is strong and consistent. It is best used where it can be 

fed into an existing power grid so it can be supplemented when the wind is not blowing. 

January 2000 LA 2 - Scoring Guide 

SCORE 

4 

Standard of 

Excellence 

3 

2 

Acceptable 

Standard 

1 

SCORING DESCRIPTIONS 

The response is complete, well organized, and reflects thorough 

understanding and logical consistency of thought. The explanation of 

how the electricity is produced and the description of the energy 

transformations is complete and correct. The advantages and 

disadvantages of the energy source are thoroughly explained. 

The response is mostly complete, organized, and reflects correct 

understanding. The explanation of how the electricity is produced and 

the description of the energy transformations is mostly correct. The 

advantages and disadvantages of the energy source are clearly 

explained. 

The response is organized, and is generally logical and consistent . 

The explanation of how the electricity is produced and the description of 

the energy transformations is adequate. The advantages and 

disadvantages of the energy source are explained reasonably well. 

The response is incomplete, disorganized, and reflects poor 

understanding. The explanation of how the electricity is produced and 

the description of the energy transformations is inadequate. The 

advantages and disadvantages of the energy source are poorly explained. 

0 The response does not address the question at a Science 30 level. 

02/08/00

Science 30 January 2000 Diploma Examination

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