Science 30

cience 30 Science 30 Science 30 Science 30 Science 30 Science 30 Science 30 Science 30 Scien 

Science 30 Science 30 Science 30 Science 30 Science 30 Science 30 Science 30 Science 30 

January 2002 





ience 30 Science 30 Science 30 Science 30 Science 30 Science 30 Science 30 Science 30 Scienc 

Science 30 


Grade 12 Diploma Examination 











cience 30 Science 30 Science 30 Science 30 Science 30 Science 30 Science 30 Science 30 Scien

Copyright 2002, the Crown in Right of Alberta, as represented by the Minister of Learning, Alberta 

Learning, Learner Assessment Branch, 11160 Jasper Avenue, Edmonton, Alberta T5K 0L2. All rights 

reserved. Additional copies may be purchased from the Learning Resource Centre. 

Special permission is granted to Alberta educators only to reproduce, for educational purposes and on a 

non-profit basis, parts of this examination that do not contain excerpted material only after the 

administration of this examination. 

Excerpted material in this examination shall not be reproduced without the written permission of the 

original publisher (see credits page, where applicable).

January 2002 


Grade 12 Diploma Examination 

Description 

Time: This examination was developed 

to be completed in 2.5 h; however, you 

may take an additional 0.5 h to complete 

the examination. 

This is a closed-book examination 

consisting of 

• 40 multiple-choice and 12 numericalresponse 

questions of equal value, 

worth 65% of the examination 

• 1 short-answer question and 2 longanswer 

questions, worth 35% of the 

examination 

This examination contains sets 

of related questions. 

A set of questions may contain 

multiple-choice and/or numericalresponse 

and/or written-response 

questions. 

A science data booklet is provided for 

your reference. 

Note: The perforated pages at the back of 

this booklet may be torn out and used for 

your rough work. No marks will be given 

for work done on the tear-out pages. 

Instructions 

• You are expected to provide your own 

calculator. You may use any scientific 

calculator or a graphing calculator 

approved by Alberta Learning. 

• You are expected to have cleared your 

calculator of all information that is 

stored in the programmable or 

parametric memory. 

• Use only an HB pencil for the machinescored 

answer sheet. 

• Fill in the information required on the 

answer sheet and the examination 

booklet as directed by the presiding 

examiner. 

• Read each question carefully. 

• Consider all numbers used in the 

examination to be the result of a 

measurement or observation. 

• When performing calculations, use the 

values of the constants provided in the 

data booklet. Do not use the values 

programmed in your calculator. 

• If you wish to change an answer, erase 

all traces of your first answer. 

• Do not fold the answer sheet. 

• The presiding examiner will collect your 

answer sheet and examination booklet 

and send them to Alberta Learning. 

• Now turn this page and read the detailed 

instructions for answering machinescored 

and written-response questions.

Multiple Choice 

• Decide which of the choices best 

completes the statement or answers 

the question. 

• Locate that question number on the 

separate answer sheet provided and 

fill in the circle that corresponds to 

your choice. 

Example 

This examination is for the subject of 

A. science 

B. biology 

C. physics 

D. chemistry 

Answer Sheet 

A B C D 

Numerical Response 

• Record your answer on the answer 

sheet provided by writing it in the 

boxes and then filling in the 

corresponding circles. 

• If an answer is a value between 0 and 1 

(e.g., 0.25), then be sure to record the 0 

before the decimal place. 

• Enter the first digit of your answer 

in the left-hand box and leave any 

unused boxes blank. 

Examples 

Calculation Question and Solution 

The average of the values 21.0, 25.5, and 

24.5 is _________. 

(Record your three-digit answer in the 

numerical-response section on the answer 

sheet.) 

Average = (21.0 + 25.5 + 24.5)/3 

= 23.666 

= 23.7 (rounded to three digits) 

Record 23.7 on the 

answer sheet 2 3 . 7 

. . 

0 0 0 0 

1 1 1 1 

2 2 2 2 

3 3 3 3 

4 4 4 4 

5 5 5 5 

6 6 6 6 

7 7 7 7 

8 8 8 8 

9 9 9 9 

ii

Written Response 

Correct-Order Question and Solution 

When the following subjects are arranged in 

alphabetical order, the order is ____, ____, 

____, and ____ . 

1 physics 

2 biology 

3 science 

4 chemistry 

(Record all four digits of your answer in the 

numerical-response section on the answer 

sheet.) 

Answer: 2413 

Record 2413 on the 

answer sheet 

2 4 1 3 

. . 

0 0 0 0 

1 1 1 1 

2 2 2 2 

3 3 3 3 

4 4 4 4 

5 5 5 5 

6 6 6 6 

7 7 7 7 

8 8 8 8 

9 9 9 9 

• Write your responses in the examination 

booklet as neatly as possible. 

• For full marks, your responses must 

address all aspects of the question. 

• Descriptions and/or explanations of 

concepts must be correct and include 

pertinent ideas, diagrams, calculations, 

and formulas. 

• Your responses must be presented in a 

well-organized manner using complete 

sentences, correct units and correct 

significant digits, where appropriate. 

• Relevant scientific, technological, and/or 

societal concepts and examples must be 

identified and made explicit. 

iii

Staff at a medical clinic are familiar with body systems and the technologies used 

to treat problems associated with them. 

Biconcave 

Use the following diagrams to answer the first question. 

Cell type M 

Stained Blood Components 

Cell type N 

2 µm 

Irregularshaped 

8.5 µm nucleus 

Non-stained 

granules 

10–15 µm 

Cell type P 

Clear outer zone 

2–4 µm 

Blue-stained inner zone 

1. Cell types M, N, and P shown above represent, respectively, 

A. a red blood cell, a white blood cell, and platelets 

B. a red blood cell, a platelet, and white blood cells 

C. a platelet, a red blood cell, and white blood cells 

D. a platelet, a white blood cell, and red blood cells 

2. Which of the following defence system components is not considered part of the 

body’s first defence against infection 

A. Tears 

B. Skin cells 

C. Stomach acid 

D. Helper T cells 

1

Use the following information to answer the next question. 

A faulty heart valve allows blood to flow back into a previous chamber. This 

condition may be treated by replacing the faulty valve with a mechanical one. 

To open 

To close 

3. In some patients, blood flows back through a defective valve into the right atrium. 

In which of the diagrams below is the mechanical valve placed so that it would 

correct this problem 

A. B. 

C. D. 

2

4. The mechanisms that control blood flow in arteries are different than the 

mechanisms that control blood flow in veins. In arteries, 

A. there are no valves 

B. the valves are attached to muscles 

C. valves only exist in secondary vessels 

D. the valves are positioned in the opposite direction of the blood flow in veins 

5. The type of blood vessel that releases nutrients and oxygen to the tissues is called 

A. a vein 

B. a venule 

C. an artery 

D. a capillary 

6. If a patient’s resting blood pressure was 160/100, then the patient would have 

A. lower-than-average systolic and diastolic pressure 

B. higher-than-average systolic and diastolic pressure 

C. higher-than-average systolic pressure and lower-than-average diastolic 

pressure 

D. lower-than-average systolic pressure and higher-than-average diastolic 

pressure 

3


Disease-Fighting Mechanisms 

1 Vaccines 

2 Antibiotics 

3 Antibodies 

4 Gene therapy 


1. Match each of the mechanisms listed above with its description given below. Use 

each number only once. 

Proteins that combine with specific antigens _____ (Record in the first column) 

The replacement of defective alleles with 

normal alleles _____ (Record in the second column) 

Weakened viruses that produce immunity _____ (Record in the third column) 

Compounds developed to kill bacteria _____ (Record in the fourth column) 

(Record all four digits of your answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.) 

7. Foreign proteins in the blood stimulate an immune response. In which of the 

following rows is a type of white blood cell paired with its function 

Row White Blood Cell Function 

A. Macrophages Ingest antigens 

B. B cells Start immune response 

C. Helper T cells Stop immune response 

D. Killer (cytotoxic) T cells Produce antibodies 

4


Some Steps Involved in the Development of Immunity 

1 Helper T cells stimulate B cells to produce antibodies. 

2 Macrophages present antigens to T cells. 

3 Memory T cells remain in the body, ready in case a familiar antigen 

enters the body at a later time. 

4 Suppressor T cells turn off the immune response. 


2. The steps above, arranged in the order in which they occur, are 

_____ , _____ , _____ , and _____ . 

first 

last 


5


Neurons 

Interneuron 

(Association neuron) 

Motor neuron 

Nerve networks perform an important communication function in the body. 

Some events that occur in the transfer of a nerve impulse from an interneuron 

to a motor neuron are listed below. 

1 An impulse moves along the motor neuron dendrite. 

2 Cholinesterase breaks apart acetylcholine molecules. 

3 An impulse moves along the interneuron axon. 

4 An interneuron axon releases acetylcholine molecules into synapse; 

acetylcholine attaches to the membrane of the motor neuron dendrite. 


3. The events above, listed in the order in which they occur, are _____, _____, 

_____, and _____. 


8. A motor neuron conducts impulses from 

A. muscles to glands 

B. glands to muscles 

C. the central nervous system to muscles and glands 

D. muscles and glands to the central nervous system 

6

9. Light rays pass through the structures of the eye in the sequence 

A. lens → cornea → pupil → retina 

B. pupil → cornea → retina → lens 

C. cornea → lens → pupil → retina 

D. cornea → pupil → lens → retina 

10. The human eye generates nerve impulses in response to wavelengths that range from 

A. 10 to 50 nm 

B. 400 to 700 nm 

C. 2 000 to 4 000 nm 

D. 20 000 to 50 000 nm 

7

Use the following information to answer the next three questions. 

Cell Division 

ACAC 

ACAC 

ACTC 

ACTC 

Process 1 

Cell 3 

Cell A 

Cell C 

ACAC 

ACAC 

Cell 4 

ACTC 

ACTC 

Process 2 

Cell B 

Cell D 

11. The cells above that would contain both sets of genetic information (ACAC and 

ACTC) are 

A. cell 3 and cell 4 

B. cell 3 and cell C 

C. cell 4 and cell D 

D. cell C and cell D 

8

12. In the cell division diagram, the type of cell represented by cell 3 is 

A. a zygote 

B. an egg cell 

C. a body cell 

D. a sperm cell 


4. Match each of the numbered processes and cells in the cell division diagram with 

the term below that describes it. Use each number only once. 

Mitosis _____ (Record in the first column) 

Meiosis _____ (Record in the second column) 

Haploid _____ (Record in the third column) 

Diploid _____ (Record in the fourth column) 


9

13. DNA can be described as 

A. an expression of a trait 

B. a strand of protein that attacks foreign antigens 

C. a sequence of bases on a sugar-phosphate backbone 

D. a single stranded unit composed of sugar, phosphate, and a base 

Use the following information to answer the next two questions. 

The radiation that is sometimes used to treat cancer may be provided by 

radium-226 undergoing alpha-decay according to the equation 

226 Ra 4 222 

88 

→ 

2 

He + 

86 Rn + 

gamma radiation 


5. What is the amount of energy released when one mole of radium-226 decays to 

form radon-222 

Answer: __________ × 10 11 J/mol 

(Record your three-digit answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.) 

14. A fusion reaction differs from a fission reaction in that a fusion reaction involves 

A. large atomic nuclei splitting to form smaller atomic nuclei 

B. smaller atomic nuclei combining to form larger atomic nuclei 

C. the release of energy, whereas fission involves the absorption of energy 

D. the absorption of energy, whereas fission involves the release of energy 

10


Electromagnetic radiation has many applications inside and outside of the 

medical field. 

Electromagnetic Waves 

1 Infrared 

2 Radio 

3 Gamma 

4 Visible light 


6. Match each of the electromagnetic waves numbered above with its most common 

use, as given below. Use each number only once. 

Cancer treatment _____ (Record in the first column) 

Communication _____ (Record in the second column) 

To see objects _____ (Record in the third column) 

To warm food _____ (Record in the fourth column) 


11

Environmental technicians collect and analyze air, water, and soil samples. 


Water Sampling Sites 

Site 3 

Prevailing wind 

River 

Coal 

strip mine 

Townsite 

Lake 

Site 2 

Site 4 

Coal-burning 

generating 

station 

Lake 

Site 1 

Water samples were collected and analyzed from the four sites marked on the 

map above. The following data were obtained. 

Temperature 

[H 3 O + (aq)] 

Organic matter (ppm) 

Dissolved O 2 (ppm) 

Site 1 Site 2 Site 3 Site 4 

9°C 

6°C 

4°C 

5°C 

1.6 × 10 –6 mol/L 6.3 × 10 –5 mol/L 1.0 × 10 –6 mol/L 1.3 × 10 –5 mol/L 

4.7 

15. Fish that require a high level of dissolved oxygen would likely thrive at 

A. site 1 

B. site 2 

C. site 3 

D. site 4 

__________________________ 

16. If a substance has a basic pH, then the pH for that substance is 

A. less than 7 and will turn red litmus blue 

B. less than 7 and will turn blue litmus red 

C. greater than 7 and will turn red litmus blue 

D. greater than 7 and will turn blue litmus red 

17. Fish-eating birds in a test area were found to have a higher concentration of 

dioxins than the fish they eat. This is a result of 

A. biodiversity 

B. biofeedback 

C. bioselectivity 

D. biomagnification 

18. Farmers in an area want to try a new pesticide that contains a chemical called 

ivermectin. This compound is similar to DDT in that it is a very stable compound 

and does not dissolve easily in water. Those who oppose the use of ivermectin are 

concerned that ivermectin will 

A. be target specific 

B. be excreted by target organisms 

C. biodegrade too quickly to be effective 

D. accumulate in increasing concentrations in the food chain 

13


A technician tests the environment for different organic compounds. 

Structural Formulas of Four Organic Compounds 

I 

H 

H 

H 

II 

H 

O 

H 

– 

– 

– 

H – C – C – C – OH 

– 

= 

– 

H – C – C – C – H 

H 

H 

H 

– 

– 

– 

– 

H 

– 

H 

III 

H H O 

– 

– 

= 

H – C – C – C – OH 

H 

H 

– 

– 

IV 

H 

– 

H – C – C 

– 

H 

H 

– 

– 

H 

=O 

– C– 

H 

19. Which of the structural formulas above represents an alcohol 

A. Compound I 

B. Compound II 

C. Compound III 

D. Compound IV 

14


Genetic Engineering Used to Control Weeds 

Weeds may dramatically reduce food crop yields. One solution is to plant 

seeds that have been genetically engineered to have resistance to herbicides. 

After the crop is planted, herbicides can be applied to wipe out the weeds in 

the crop. 

Short Answer––5% 

Outline the risks and benefits that may be associated with using this method of weed 

control. You may use paragraph format, point-form notes, and/or tables in your answer. 

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15

– 

– 

– 

– 

– 

– 

20. Bromomethane, used in some pesticides, is being phased out over time. It is 

capable of breaking down large amounts of ozone in the upper atmosphere. The 

structural formula for bromomethane is 

A. 

H 

B. 

H 

O 

– 

H – C – H 

– 

= 

H – C – C – Br 

Br 

H 

H 

C. 

H 

D. 

H 

H 

– 

H – C – Cl 

– 

– 

Cl – C – C – Br 

Br 

H 

H 

21. The type of radiation that is absorbed by ozone in the upper atmosphere is 

A. X-ray radiation 

B. infrared radiation 

C. ultraviolet radiation 

D. gamma ray radiation 

22. Depletion of the ozone layer can lead to an increase in the occurrence of cataracts. 

Cataracts cause vision problems by blocking some of the light that passes through 

the eye. Cataracts are located in the 

A. lens 

B. rods 

C. cones 

D. retina 

16


In the analysis of water from a lake, a technician detected the following four 

acids in the concentrations given. 

1 HNO 2(aq) 4.00 × 10 –3 mol/L 

2 HNO 3(aq) 2.50 × 10 –5 mol/L 

3 H 2 SO 3(aq) 3.50 × 10 –4 mol/L 

4 H 2 SO 4(aq) 4.50 × 10 –5 mol/L 

23. The weakest acid that the technician detected was 

A. HNO 2(aq) 

B. HNO 3(aq) 

C. H 2 SO 3(aq) 

D. H 2 SO 4(aq) 


8. The four acids above, listed in order from most concentrated to least concentrated, 

are _____ , _____ , _____ , and _____ . 

most 

least 

concentrated 

concentrated 


17


Test Results of Four Soil Samples Analyzed by an 

Environmental Testing Laboratory 

Sample 

Pesticides 

mg/kg 

Lead 

mg/kg 

PCBs 

mg/kg 

Gasoline 

mg/kg 

1 

2 

3 

4 

0.05 

0.03 

0.01 

20.00 

600 

10 

30 

40 

0.02 

9.00 

0.01 

0.04 

20 

70 

800 

10 

Acceptable Levels 0.10 50 0.10 100 


9. Match each of the samples numbered above with the site of its probable 

pollution source, as listed below. Use each number only once. 

Petroleum refinery _____ (Record in the first column) 

Farmland _____ (Record in the second column) 

Battery disposal site _____ (Record in the third column) 

Electrical equipment disposal site _____ (Record in the fourth column) 


18

In order for astronomers to explore space, they must understand the nature of 

electromagnetic radiation and field theory. 


Astronomers in a space station were able to observe sources of radiation from 

space without the interference of Earth’s atmosphere. Four of their 

observations are listed below. 

Observations 

1 X-rays 

2 Doppler shift 

3 Dark-line spectra 

4 Infrared radiation 


10. Match each of the observations numbered above with the term below that is 

most closely associated with it. Use each number only once. 

Motion of stars _____ (Record in the first column) 

Black holes _____ (Record in the second column) 

Cool star _____ (Record in the third column) 

Composition of gases around a star _____ (Record in the fourth column) 


24. Astronomers can use red shift to calculate distance in space because the 

electromagnetic radiation emitted from objects moving 

A. away from Earth is red-shifted to shorter wavelengths 

B. away from Earth is red-shifted to longer wavelengths 

C. toward Earth is red-shifted to shorter wavelengths 

D. toward Earth is red-shifted to longer wavelengths 

19

25. Listed in order of increasing frequency, three types of electromagnetic radiation are 

A. radio waves, gamma rays, and infrared radiation 

B. radio waves, infrared radiation, and gamma rays 

C. gamma rays, radio waves, and infrared radiation 

D. infrared radiation, radio waves, and gamma rays 

26. Scientists are studying a type of rocket fuel that would use laser-ionized argon gas 

accelerated out the rear of a ship by electric fields. What electric-field strength 

would be produced by charged parallel plates 0.0500 m apart if the potential 

difference between them is 7 500 V 

A. 5.75 × 10 –7 V/m 

B. 6.67 × 10 –6 V/m 

C. 1.50 × 10 5 V/m 

D. 2.70 × 10 16 V/m 

27. When space science technology advances to the point that there are manned 

missions to Mars, a lift-off for the return flight to Earth will require more fuel than 

does a lunar lift-off because of the greater gravity on Mars. The mass of Mars is 

6.42 × 10 23 kg, and its radius is 3.38 × 10 6 m. The magnitude of the gravitational 

field at the surface of Mars is 

A. 3.75 N/kg 

B. 1.27 × 10 7 N/kg 

C. 3.75 × 10 22 N/kg 

D. 1.27 × 10 29 N/kg 

28. If the distance between two masses is doubled, the gravitational force (F g ) between 

the masses is 

A. doubled 

B. quadrupled 

C. reduced to one-half 

D. reduced to one-quarter 

20

Use the following diagrams to answer the next question. 

Planets with Satellites 

Planet 1 

satellite 

Planet 2 

satellite 

r 

2 r 

mass = 1 

mass = 1 

Planet 3 

satellite 

Planet 4 

satellite 

r 

2 r 

mass = 2 

mass = 2 


11. The planets above, listed in order from the one with the least amount of attraction 

between it and its satellite to the one with the greatest amount of attraction are 

_____ , _____ , _____ , and _____ . 

least 

greatest 


21

Scientists and science-literate citizens are concerned about the sources and uses 

of energy. 

29. In a hydrogen fuel cell that uses elemental hydrogen and oxygen to produce water, 

the balanced equation that occurs is 

A. 2H 2(g) + O 2(g) → 2H 2 O (l) 

B. H 2(g) + O (g) → 2H 2 O (l) 

C. H 2(g) + O 2(g) → H 2 O (l) 

D. 2H (g) + O (g) → H 2 O (l) 

30. Carbon dioxide emissions are an environmental concern because carbon dioxide 

A. traps heat, which contributes to acid deposition 

B. traps heat, which contributes to global warming 

C. mixes with water, which contributes to the formation of dioxins 

D. mixes with atmospheric vapour, which contributes to ozone depletion 

31. Experimental fusion reactors use deuterium and tritium fuel as their energy 

sources. The products of the reaction are helium-4 (alpha particle) and a neutron. 

This reaction can be represented by 

1 

H 3 4 1 

1 1 2 1 

A. + H → He + n 

2 

1 

3 

1 

4 

2 

1 

0 

B. H + H → He + n 

4 

H 1 1 3 

2 1 1 1 

C. + n → H + H 

4 1 2 3 

2 

H 

0 1 1 

D. + n → H + H 

22

32. Which of the following statements provides an accurate comparison of fusion and 

fission technology 

A. Using fission is cleaner than using fusion. 

B. Using fusion is less expensive than using fission. 

C. Fission reactions produce more energy per gram of reactant than do fusion 

reactions. 

D. A larger amount of energy is required to initiate fusion reactions than to 

initiate fission reactions. 

33. An energy source with few environmental or health risks is tidal power. Tidal 

energy is caused by 

A. inertia 

B. solar reactions 

C. gravity and inertia 

D. solar reactions and convection 

23

34. The rise and fall of tides around the world is mainly caused by the 

A. revolution of the sun around Earth 

B. revolution of Earth around the moon 

C. gravitational fields of Venus and Mars 

D. gravitational fields of the sun and moon 

35. Electrical energy from wind-powered generators is produced intermittently. It is 

sometimes stored in batteries to be used later. Energy stored in the batteries is in 

the form of 

A. electrical energy 

B. chemical energy 

C. thermal energy 

D. kinetic energy 

24


A local power-transmission line supplies a primary voltage of 7 000 V to 

a pole transformer that steps down the voltage to 220 V in a secondary line 

to the consumer. 

Secondary 

line to 

consumer 

220 V 

Primary 

line 

7 000 V 

Transformer 

36. The ratio of the number of turns in the primary coil to the number of turns in the 

secondary coil of the pole transformer is approximately 

A. 7 000 : 1 

B. 1 : 7 000 

C. 32 : 1 

D. 1 : 32 

37. If the current in the secondary line is 10.0 A, then the power carried by the 

secondary line is 

A. 69.1 W 

B. 691 W 

C. 2.20 × 10 3 W 

D. 7.00 × 10 4 W 

25

38. Which of the following graphs best demonstrates why alternating current (AC), 

rather than direct current (DC), is used in long-distance energy transmission 

A. 

High 

AC 

B. 

High 

Useful power 

DC 

Relative amount of 

radio interference 

Low 

Distance (km) 

Low 

AC 

DC 

C. D. 

High 

Relative ease 

of production 

Low 

AC 

DC 

Influence on 

magnetic compasses 

High 

Low 

DC 

AC 

0.5 1.0 

Distance (km) 

39. Household circuits are wired in 

A. series to increase resistance 

B. parallel to increase resistance 

C. series so that the amount of current to each appliance varies 

D. parallel so that the voltage across each appliance is consistent 

26


12. A circuit in a household computer is rated at 1.50 W. If this circuit has an 

electrical resistance of 119 Ω, then the current it draws will 

be __________ × 10 –1 A. 

(Record your three-digit answer in the numerical-response section on the answer sheet.) 

40. The fuel used to heat most houses in Alberta is 

A. oil 

B. coal 

C. propane 

D. natural gas 

27


The use of organic waste from plants and animals could provide a significant 

source of energy. 

One process of obtaining energy from organic waste is to use a biogas digester 

consisting of an airtight pit or a container lined with brick or steel. Waste 

matter put into this container is fermented anaerobically into methane gas, 

which can be collected and used as a fuel source for cooking, lighting, or 

generating electricity. 

Pressure 

system 

Gasline 

to kitchen 

Inlet 

Gas chamber 

Outlet 

Reactor 

An alternative process is to burn manure directly. In this process, the manure 

is dried and then burned in furnaces. 

Long Answer––15% 

1. a. Hypothesize which of the two processes described above would be most 

efficient. Design an experiment to test your hypothesis. 

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b. Explain the advantages and disadvantages of using biomass (organic waste) to 

produce energy on a large scale. 

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30

Long Answer––15% 

2. Describe any environmental issue. Describe what steps you think society should use 

to deal with the environmental issue you have chosen. Include examples of political or 

technological strategies, where appropriate. 

Note: You may not discuss an issue related to the use of biomass to produce energy or 

related to genetic engineering used to control weeds. 

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You have now completed the examination. 

If you have time, you may wish to check your answers. 

32

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(Legal First Name) 

Name: 

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(Apt./Street/Ave./P.O. Box) 

School Code: 

(Village/Town/City) (Postal Code) 

School: Signature: 


January 2002 

Y M D 

Date of Birth: Sex: 

For Department Use Only 

M1 

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C1 

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M3 

C3 

M4 

C4 

Name 

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Science 30

Science 30 January 2002 Diploma Examination 

Multiple Choice Key and Numerical Response Keys 

1. A 21. C 

2. D 22. A 

3. D 23. A 

4. A 24. B 

5. D 25. B 

6. B 26. C 

7. A 27. A 

8. C 28. D 

9. D 29. A 

10. B 30. B 

11. B 31. B 

12. C 32. D 

13. C 33. C 

14. B 34. D 

15. C 35. B 

16. C 36. C 

17. D 37. C 

18. D 38. A 

19. A 39. D 

20. A 40. D 

1. 3412 

2. 2143 

3. 3412 or 3421 

4. 1243 

5. 4.77 

6. 3241 

7. 2413 

8. 1342 

9. 3412 

10. 2143 

11. 2413 

12. 1.12 

02/27/02

January 2002 – Sample Answer for Short Answer 

Possible risks include 

• the taste of the grains or fruit may change 

• the produce may contain allergens 

• the resistance to the pesticide may migrate to the undesirable weeds 

• the seeds may cost more than non-genetically modified seeds 

• the modifications may harm insects and birds that help pollinate the plant 

Possible benefits include 

• less herbicide is needed so that less water pollution occurs 

• less herbicide means lower over all cost to farmer 

• better crop yield than from non-modified seeds 

• less work may be required by farmer as weed control is more easily achieved 

• better crop yield because more space for desired plants (less competition with weeds) 

Score 

4 

Standard 

of 

Excellence 

3 

2 

Acceptable 

Standard 

1 

SCORING GUIDE FOR SHORT ANSWER 

Scoring Descriptions 

The response reflects an accurate understanding of an issue related to 

genetic engineering and accurately outlines acceptable risks and 

benefits of weed control. 

The response reflects an adequate understanding of acceptable risks 

and benefits of weed control. 

The response reflects a sketchy understanding of acceptable risks 

and/or benefits of weed control. 

The response reflects a poor understanding of acceptable risks and/or 

benefits of weed control. 

0 The response does not address any of the major points of the question 

at an appropriate level for a 30-level course. 

02/27/02

January 2002 – Sample Answer for Long Answer 1 

- 

a. I hypothesize that the biogas digester will be more efficient than dried manure as a fuel 

source. 

An experiment to test this hypothesis needs to measure the amount of energy produced by 

equal amounts of biogas material and dried manure. 

Step 1 

Step 2 

Take an amount of biogas material and allow it to ferment. Capture the 

methane it produces. 

Take the methane, burn it, and measure the amount of energy produced. One 

method to measure the amount of energy produced is to use a beaker with a 

measured amount of water and a measured starting temperature. Place the 

beaker above the flame of the burning methane and when the methane is 

consumed, measure the final temperature of the water. The energy released can 

be calculated using Q = mc∆T 

Step 3 Take the same amount of dried manure as of biogas material as in Step 1. 

Step 4 

Burn the dried manure and measure the amount of energy produced. This can 

be measured in the same manner as described above in Step 2. 

The larger the energy released, Q, in Step 2 or Step 4 will be the more efficient source. 

b. Advantages of using a biogas digester as an energy source on a large scale include that it 

is a renewable resource as organic waste is growing all around us all the time and it is an 

energy source that would require new infrastructure and so would motivate new jobs. 

Disadvantages of using a biogas digester as an energy source is that the burning of 

methane produces carbon dioxide which is a greenhouse gas, the biomass reactor may 

explode or leak harmful materials into the environment, there is a significant cost is 

building new biogas digesters, there may be difficulties in shipping sufficient 

quantities of organic waste materials to the digesters, and a wholesale change to a 

different energy source would cause a loss of jobs in the oil industry. 

02/27/02

JANUARY 2001 – SCORING GUIDE FOR LONG ANSWER 1 

SCORE 

SCORING DESCRIPTIONS 

The description of the experiment is logical and realistic. The response 

4 contains a hypothesis, a test and variables that support the experimental 

Standard of design. The response is complete, well organized, and reflects 

Excellence thorough understanding of the advantages and disadvantages of using 

biomass as an energy source 

The description of the experiment is logical. The response contains a 

complete hypothesis, a test and variables that support the experimental 

design. 

3 

2 

Acceptable 

Standard 

1 

Or 

The response contains elements of an experimental design AND the 

response is complete, organized, and reflects thorough 

understanding of the advantages and disadvantages of using biomass as 

an energy source. 

The response contains elements of an experimental design AND the 

response is incomplete, and reflects poor understanding of the 

advantages and disadvantages of using biomass as an energy source. 

Or 

The response reflects a thorough understanding of the advantages and 

disadvantages of using biomass as an energy source. 

The description of the experiment is not adequate. The response is 

incomplete, disorganized, and reflects poor understanding of the 

advantages and disadvantages of using biomass as an energy source. 

0 The response does not address any of the major points of the question at 

an appropriate level for a 30-level course. 

NR 

No response. 

02/27/02

January 2002 – Sample Answer for Long Answer 2 

Note: it is expected that the student select and describe an environmental issue. The 

student then needs to describe at least two ways to reduce the negative effects of the issue 

selected. 

General environmental pollution, such as the exhaust discharge from automobiles, is 

harming the environment. This harm is in the form of smog and its effect may cause 

people to have breathing difficulties. 

Politically, governments could limit the number of cars on the road, or they could insist 

upon catalytic converters on car to reduce the emissions from the engine. Individuals 

could switch to public transit, walking or cycling to reduce emissions. The car industry 

could produce more fuel efficient cars or even electric cars so that there is less pollution 

happening. 

JANUARY 2001 – SCORING GUIDE FOR LONG ANSWER 2 

SCORE 

SCORING DESCRIPTIONS 

4 

Standard of 

Excellence 

3 

The response is complete, well organized, and reflects thorough 

understanding of one environmental issue. A political or technological 

strategy is thoroughly and correctly explained. 

The response is mostly complete, organized, and reflects correct 


strategy is adequately explained. 

2 

Acceptable 

Standard 

1 

0 

The response is organized and generally reflects an understanding of 

one environmental issue. A political or technological strategy is 

generally explained. 

The response is incomplete, disorganized, and reflects poor 


strategy is stated or missing. 

The response does not address the question at a Science 30 level. 

02/27/02

Science 30

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