Word Pictures in the New Testament - David Cox

Word Pictures in the NT [Romans: Chapter 3]
\pseudomai\, to lie, only here in N.T. Paul returns to the
imaginary objection in verse 5. The MSS. differ sharply here
between \ei de\ (but if) and \ei gar\ (for if). Paul "uses the
first person from motives of delicacy" (Sanday and Headlam) in
this supposable case for argument's sake as in 1Co 4:6. So here
he "transfers by a fiction" (Field) to himself the objection.
3:8 {And why not} (\kai m•\). We have a tangled sentence which
can be cleared up in two ways. One is (Lightfoot) to supply
\gen•tai\ after \m•\ and repeat \ti\ (\kai ti m• gen•tai\,
deliberative subjunctive in a question): And why should it not
happen? The other way (Sanday and Headlam) is to take \m•\ with
\poi•s•men\ and make a long parenthesis of all in between. Even
so it is confusing because \hoti\ also (recitative \hoti\) comes
just before \poi•s•men\. The parenthesis is necessary anyhow, for
there are two lines of thought, one the excuse brought forward by
the unbeliever, the other the accusation that Paul affirms that
very excuse that we may do evil that good may come. Note the
double indirect assertion (the accusative and the infinitive
\h•m•s legein\ after \phasin\ and then the direct quotation with
recitative \hoti\ after \legein\, a direct quotation dependent on
the infinitive in indirect quotation.) {Let us do evil that good
may come} (\poi•s•men ta kaka hina elth•i ta agatha\). The
volitive aorist subjunctive (\poi•s•men\) and the clause of
purpose (\hina\ and the aorist subjunctive \elth•i\). It sounds
almost uncanny to find this maxim of the Jesuits attributed to
Paul in the first century by Jews. It was undoubtedly the
accusation of Antinomianism because Paul preached justification
by faith and not by works.
3:9 {What then?} (\ti oun?\). Paul's frequent query, to be taken
with verses 1,2. {Are we in worse case than they?}
(\proechometha?\). The American Revisers render it: "Are we in
better case than they?" There is still no fresh light on this
difficult and common word though it occurs alone in the N.T. In
the active it means to have before, to excel. But here it is
either middle or passive. Thayer takes it to be middle and to
mean to excel to one's advantage and argues that the context
demands this. But no example of the middle in this sense has been
found. If it is taken as passive, Lightfoot takes it to mean,
"Are we excelled" and finds that sense in Plutarch. Vaughan takes
it as passive but meaning, "Are we preferred?" This suits the
context, but no other example has been found. So the point
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