TEST SERIES FOR AIPMT (HALF SYLLABUS) - Career Point

TEST SERIES FOR AIPMT
(HALF SYLLABUS)
Time : 3 : 00 Hrs. MAX MARKS: 800
Name : ______________________________________Roll No. : ____________________ Date : _____________________
GENERAL:
Instructions to Candidates
1. This paper contains 200 Qs. in all. All questions are compulsory.
2. There is Negative Marking. Guessing of answer is harmful.
3. Write your Name, Roll No. & Date in the space provided on this cover page of question paper.
4. The question paper contains blank space for your rough work. No additional sheet will be provided for
rough work.
5. The answer sheet, machine readable Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) is provided separately.
6. Do not break the seals of the question paper booklet before being instructed to do so by the
invigilator.
7. Blank papers, Clipboards, Log tables, Slide Rule, Calculators, Cellular Phones, Pagers and
Electronic Gadgets in any form are not allowed to be carried inside the examination hall.
MARKING SCHEME:
1. Each Question has four options, only one option is correct. For each incorrect response, one-mark would be
deducted.
2. In Physics : Q. 1 - 50 carry 4 marks each,
In Chemistry : Q. 51 - 100 carry 4 marks each,
In Biology : Q. 101 - 200 carry 4 marks each,
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SEAL

Q.1 To break a wire of one meter length, minimum
40 kg-wt is required. Then the wire of the same
material of double radius and 6m length will require
breaking weight -
(1) 80 kg-wt (2) 240 kg-wt
(3) 200 kg-wt (4) 160 kg-wt
Q.2 A soap film of surface tension 3 × 10 –2 Nm –1
formed in rectangular frame, can support a straw.
The length of the film is 10 cm. Mass of the straw
the film can support is -
(1) 0.06 gm (2) 0.6 gm
(3) 6 gm (4) 60 gm
Q.3 Under a constant pressure head, the rate of flow of
liquid through a capillary tube is V. If the length of
the capillary is doubled and the diameter of the
bore is halved, the rate of flow would become-
(1) V/4 (2) 16 V
(3) V/8 (4) V/32
Q.4 The gravitational potential energy of a body of
mass m at the earth's surface is (–) mgRe. Its
gravitational potential energy at a height Re from
the earth's surface will be (Here Re is the radius of
the earth)
(1) – 2 mg Re (2) 2 mg Re
1
(3) (1/2) mg Re (4) − mgRe
2
Q.5 A train moves towards an observer with speed of
68 m/s. If train sounds a whistle and frequency
heard by stationary observer is n1. If speed of train
is doubled the frequency heard is n2, then ratio n1/n2
is: {Speed of sound is 340 m/s}.
(1) 4 : 3 (2) 5 : 3
(3) 3 : 4 (4) 3 : 5
Q.6 The stationary wave produced on a string is
represented by the equation :
⎛ πx
⎞
y = 5 cos ⎜ ⎟ sin 40 πt
⎝ 3 ⎠
where x and y are in cm and t is in seconds. The
distance between consecutive nodes is-
(1) 5 cm (2) 3 cm
(3) π cm (4) 40 cm
PHYSICS
Q.1 ,d ehVj yEcs ,d rkj dks rksM+us ds fy, U;wure
40 kg-wt vko';d gksrk gSA rc leku inkFkZ dk rkj
ftldh f=kT;k nqxquh rFkk yEckbZ 6m gS] dks rksM+us esa
vko';d Hkkj gksxk&
(1) 80 kg-wt (2) 240 kg-wt
(3) 200 kg-wt (4) 160 kg-wt
Q.2 ,d vk;rkdkj Ýse eas 3 × 10 –2 Nm –1 i`"B ruko dh
,d lkcqu fQYe curh gS tks ,d LVªk dks mBk ldrh
gSA fQYe dh yEckbZ 10 cm gSA LVªk dk nzO;eku ftls
fQYe mBk ldrh gS&
(1) 0.06 gm (2) 0.6 gm
(3) 6 gm (4) 60 gm
Q.3 ,d fu;r nkc 'kh"kZ ds v/khu ,d ds'kuyh ls izokfgr
nzo dh nj V gSA ;fn ds'kuyh dh yEckbZ nqxquh rFkk
cksj dk O;kl vk/kk dj ns] rks izokg dh nj gks
tk;sxh&
(1) V/4 (2) 16 V
(3) V/8 (4) V/32
Q.4 i`Foh dh lrg ij m nzO;eku dh ,d oLrq dh
xq#Roh; fLFkfrt ÅtkZ (–) mgRe gSA i`Foh dh lrg ls
Re Å¡pkbZ ij bldh xq#Roh; fLFkfrt ÅtkZ gksxh&
(;gk¡ Re i`Foh dh f=kT;k gS)
(1) – 2 mg Re (2) 2 mg Re
(3) (1/2) mg Re
1
(4) − mgRe
2
Q.5 ,d Vªsu 68 m/s ds osx ls ,d izs{kd dh vksj xfr dj
jgh gSA ;fn Vªsu ,d lhVh ctkrh gS rFkk fLFkj izs{kd
}kjk lquh xbZ vko`fÙk n1 gSA vc ;fn Vªsu dh pky
nqxquh dj nsrs gS rks lquh xbZ vko`fr n2 gks tkrh gS]
rc vuqikr n1/n2 gS& {/ofu dh pky 340 m/s gS}
(1) 4 : 3 (2) 5 : 3
(3) 3 : 4 (4) 3 : 5
Q.6 ,d Mksjh esa mRiUu vizxkeh rjax dks fuEu lehdj.k
}kjk iznf'kZr fd;k x;k gS&
⎛ πx
⎞
y = 5 cos ⎜ ⎟ sin 40 πt
⎝ 3 ⎠
tgk¡ x rFkk y lseh esa rFkk t lsd.M esa gSA yxkrkj
fuLiUnkas ds chp dh nwjh gS&
(1) 5 cm (2) 3 cm
(3) π cm (4) 40 cm
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Q.7 A particle is subjected to two mutually
perpendicular simple harmonic motions such that
its x and y coordinates are given by -
x = 2 sin ωt
y = 2 sin (ωt + π/4)
The path of the particle will -
(1) an ellipse (2) a straight line
(3) a parabola (4) a circle
Q.8 In a gas two waves of lengths 1 meter and 1.01
metre superpose to produce 10 beats in 3
seconds. The velocity of sound in this medium is
(1) 332 m/s (2) 336.7 m/s
(3) 83 m/s (4) 166 m/s
Q.9 Two mechanical waves are travelling in the same
direction in a medium. The amplitude of each
wave is A0 and wavelength is λ. The resultant
amplitude where the phase difference between
them is 120º is :
3
(1) A0 (2) A0
2
2
(3) A0 (4) 2A0
3
Q.10 A spring is vibrating with frequency n under
some mass. If it is cut into two equal parts and same
mass is suspended, then the new frequency is -
n
(1)
2
(2) n (3) 2 n (4)
n
2
Q.11 A simple pendulum suspended from the ceiling
of a train has a period T when the train is at rest.
When the train is accelerating with a uniform
acceleration the time period of simple pendulum will
(1) decrease (2) increase
(3) remain unchanged (4) become infinite
Q.12 A particle is executing simple harmonic motion
with an amplitude of 0.02 metre and frequency
50 hertz. The maximum acceleration of the
particle is-
(1) 100 m/s 2 (2) 100 π 2 m/s 2
(3) 200 m/s 2 (4) 200 π 2 m/s 2
Q.7 ,d d.k nks vU;ksU; yEcor~ ljy vkorZ xfr;k¡
djrk gS bl izdkj ls fd blds x rFkk y funsZ'kkad
fuEu izdkj fn;s tkrs gS&
x = 2 sin ωt
y = 2 sin (ωt + π/4)
d.k dk iFk gksxk&
(1) ,d nh?kZo`Ùk (2) ,d ljy js[kk
(3) ,d ijoy; (4) ,d o`Ùk
Q.8 ,d xSl esa 1 ehVj rFkk 1.01 ehVj yEckbZ dh nks
rjaxs v/;kjksi.k ij 3 lsd.M esa 10 foLiUn mRiUu
djrh gSA bl ek/;e esa /ofu dk osx gS&
(1) 332 m/s (2) 336.7 m/s
(3) 83 m/s (4) 166 m/s
Q.9 nks ;akf=kd rjaxs ,d ek/;e esa leku fn'kk esa
lapfjr gks jgh gSA izR;sd rjax dk vk;ke A0 rFkk
rjaxnS/;Z λ gSaA ifj.kkeh vk;ke tgk¡ muds e/;
dykUrj 120º gks] gS&
(1) A0
3
(2) A0
2
2
(3) A0 (4) 2A0
3
Q.10 ,d fLizax fdlh nzO;eku ds v/khu n vko`fÙk ls
nksyu dj jgh gSA ;fn bls nks cjkcj Hkkxksa esas dkV
fn;k tkrk gS rFkk leku nzO;eku dks yVdk;k
tkrk gS] rks ubZ vko`fÙk gS&
n
(1)
2
(2) n (3) 2 n (4)
n
2
Q.11 ,d Vªsu dh Nr ls yVds ,d ljy yksyd dk
vkorZdky T gS tc Vªsu fojke esa gSA tc Vªsu ,d
leku Roj.k ls Rofjr gks jgh gks] rks ljy yksyd
dk vkorZdky&
(1) ?kV tk;sxk (2) c

Q.13 A simple harmonic oscillator has a period T and
energy E. The amplitude of the oscillator is
doubled. Choose the correct answer -
(1) Period and energy get doubled
(2) Period gets doubled while energy remains the
same
(3) Energy gets doubled while period remains the
same
(4) Period remains the same and energy becomes
4 times.
Q.14 A string of length L is fixed at one end and the
2
string makes rev/s around the vertical axis
π
through the fixed end as shown in the figure, then
tension in the string iss
–R–
(1) ML (2) 2 ML
(3) 4 ML (4) 16 ML
θ
Q.15 A particle is moving in a circular path with a
constant speed v. If θ is the angular displacement,
then starting from θ = 0º, the maximum and
minimum changes in the momentum will occur,
when value of θ is respectively-
(1) 45º and 90º (2) 90º and 180º
(3) 180º and 360º (4) 90º and 270º
Q.16 A small cone filled with water is revolved in a
vertical circle of radius 4 m and the water does
not fall down. What must be the maximum period
of revolution ?
(1) 4s (2) 2s (3) 1s (4) 6 s
Q.17 A body of mass m is moving in a circle of radius r
with a constant speed v. The force on the body is
mv 2 /r and is directed towards the centre. What is
the work done by this force in moving the body
over half the circumference of the circle ?
2
mv
(1) × πr
r
2
mv
(2)
2
r
(3) zero
πr
(4)
2
mv
L
Q.13 ,d ljy vkorZ nksyd dk vkorZdky T rFkk ÅtkZ
E gSA nksyd dk vk;ke nqxquk dj fn;k tkrk gSA
rks lgh mÙkj pqfu;s&
(1) vkorZdky rFkk ÅtkZ nqxqus gks tkrs gS
(2) vkorZdky nqxquk gks tkrk gS tcfd ÅtkZ ogh
jgrh gS
(3) ÅtkZ nqxquh gks tkrh gS tcfd vkorZdky ogh
jgrk gS
(4) vkorZdky ogh jgrk gS rFkk ÅtkZ 4 xquk gks
tkrh gSA
Q.14 L yEckbZ dh ,d Mksjh ,d fljs ls dlh gqbZ gS rFk
Mksjh ds fLFkj fljs ls xqtjus okyh Å/okZ/kj v{k ds
2
pkjksa vksj rev/s djrh gS] fp=kkuqlkj] rc Mksjh esa
π
ruko gS&
s
–R–
(1) ML (2) 2 ML
(3) 4 ML (4) 16 ML
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θ
Q.15 ,d d.k fu;r pky v ls ,d o`Ùkh; iFk esa xfreku
gSA ;fn θ dks.kh; foLFkkiu gS] rc θ = 0º ls izkjEHk
djus ij laosx esa vf/kdre rFkk U;wure ifjorZu
izkIr gksxk tc θ dk eku gS Øe'k%&
(1) 45º o 90º (2) 90º o 180º
(3) 180º o 360º (4) 90º o 270º
Q.16 ,d NksVk 'kadq ftlesa ty Hkjk gqvk gS] 4m f=kT;k
ds ,d Å/okZ/kj o`Ùk esa ?kqek;k tkrk gS rFkk ty
uhps ugha fxjrk gSA blds fy, vf/kdre ?kw.kZu
dky D;k gksuk pkfg, ?
(1) 4s (2) 2s (3) 1s (4) 6 s
Q.17 m nzO;eku dh ,d oLrq fu;r pky v ls r f=kT;k ds
,d o`Ùk esa xfr dj jgh gSA oLrq ij cy mv 2 /r gS
rFkk ;g dsUnz dh vksj funsZf'kr gSA oLrq dks o`Ùk dh
vk/kh ifjf/k ij pykus esa bl cy }kjk fd;k x;k
dk;Z D;k gS \
2
mv
(1) × πr
r
2
mv
(2)
2
r
(3) 'kwU;
πr
(4)
2
mv
L

Q.18 A motorcycle moving with a velocity of 72 km h –1
on a flat road takes a turn on the road at a point
where the radius of curvature of the road is 20 m.
The acceleration due to gravity is 10 ms –2 . In
order to avoid skidding, he must not bent with
respect to the vertical plane by an angle greater
than -
(1) θ = tan –1 (2) (2) θ = tan –1 (6)
(3) θ = tan –1 (4) (4) θ = tan –1 (25.92)
Q.19 A tennis ball rolls off the top of a stair case way
with a horizontal velocity u ms –1 . If the steps are
b metre wide and h metre high, the ball will hit
the edge of the nth step, if -
2
2hu
2hu
(1) n = (2) n =
2
2
gb
gb
2
2hu
hu
(3) n = (4) n =
gb
gb
Q.20 A bomb is dropped on an enemy post by an
aeroplane flying horizontally with a velocity of
60 kmh –1 and at a height of 490 m. At the time of
dropping the bomb, how far the aeroplane should
be from the enemy post so that the bomb may
directly hit the target ?
400
(1) m
3
500
(2) m
3
1700
(3) m
3
(4) 498 m
Q.21 If the angle of projection of a projectile is 30º,
then how many times the horizontal range is
larger than the maximum height ?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 3 4 (4) 4 3
Q.22 The distance-time graphs of a particle at time t
makes angle 45º with the time axis. After two
seconds, it makes an angle 60º with the time axis.
What is the average acceleration of the particle ?
(1) 1/2 (2) 3 / 2
(3) ( 3 − 1)
/ 2 (4) ( 3 + 1)
/ 2
Q.23 A bird flies for 4s with a velocity of | t – 2| ms –1 in
a straight line, where t = time in second. It covers
a distance of -
(1) 8 m (2) 6 m (3) 4 m (4) 2 m
2
2
Q.18 ,d eksVjlkbfdy ,d lery lM+d ij 72 km h –1 ds
osx ls pyrh gqbZ ,d fcUnq ij lM+d ij ?kqerh gS
tgk¡ lM+d dh oØrk f=kT;k 20m gSA xq#Roh; Roj.k
10 ms –2 gSA fQlyus ls cpus ds fy, mls Å/okZ/kj
ry ds lkis{k fuEu esa ls fdlls vf/kd dks.k ls
>qduk pkfg,&
(1) θ = tan –1 (2) (2) θ = tan –1 (6)
(3) θ = tan –1 (4) (4) θ = tan –1 (25.92)
Q.19 ,d Vsful xsan ,d lh

Q.24 Suppose a r and v r denote the acceleration and
velocity respectively of a body in one
dimensional motion, then -
(a) speed must increase when a > 0
r
(b) speed will increase when v r and d r are > 0
(c) speed must decreases when a < 0
r
(d) speed will decrease when v < 0
r
and a > 0
r
(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) b, d (4) c,d
Q.25 When a force of constant magnitude always acts
perpendicular to the motion of a particle, then:
(1) Velocity is constant
(2) Acceleration is constant
(3) K.E. is constant
(4) None of these
Q.26 A plumb line suspended from the roof of a
carriage moving with an acceleration a, inclines
at an angle θ with the vertical:
(1) a = g tan θ (2) a = F/m
(3)
dv
a = (4)
dt
2
d x
a =
2
dt
Q.27 A block A of mass 2kg rests on another block B
of mass 8 kg which rests on a horizontal floor.
The coefficient of friction between A and B is
0.2 while that between B and floor is 0.5. When a
horizontal force of 25 N is applied on the block
B, the force of friction between A and B is:
(1) Zero (2) 3.9 N
(3) 5.0 N (4) 49 N
Q.28 A false balance has equal arms. An object
weighs W1 when placed in one pan and W2
when placed in the other pan. The true weight
W of the object is:
(1) (W1 × W2) 1/2
2
1
2
2
(2) ( W + W )
1/
2
(3) W + ) / 2
( 1 2 W
(4) 2W1W2/(W1 + W2)
Q.24 ekuk a r rFkk v r ,d foeh; xfr esa ,d oLrq ds
Øe'k% Roj.k rFkk osx dks fu#fir djrs gS] rc&
(a) pky c 0
r
(b) pky c 0 gS
(c) pky ?kVsxh tc a < 0
r
(d) pky ?kVsxh tc v < 0
r
rFkk a > 0
r
(1) a, b (2) b, c (3) b, d (4) c,d
Q.25 tc fu;r ifjek.k dk ,d cy lnSo ,d d.k dh
xfr ds yEcor~ dk;Z djrk gS] rc
(1) osx fu;r gS
(2) Roj.k fu;r gS
(3) K.E. fu;r gS
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
Q.26 ,d lkgqy a Roj.k ls xfreku ,d okgd dh NM+ ls
Å/okZ/kj ds lkFk θ dks.k ij >qds gq;s yVdk gqvk gS] rks
(1) a = g tan θ (2) a = F/m
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(3)
dv
a = (4)
dt
2
d x
a =
2
dt
Q.27 2kg nzO;eku dk ,d CykWd A ,d {kSfrt Q'kZ ij
fojke esa fLFkr 8 kg nzO;eku ds ,d vU; CykWd ij
fojke eas j[kk gSA A rFkk B ds e/; ?k"kZ.k xq.kkad 0.2
gS tcfd B rFkk Q'kZ ds e/; 0.5 gSA 25N dk ,d
{kSfrt cy CykWd B ij vkjksfir fd;k tkrk gS] rks
A rFkk B ds e/; ?k"kZ.k cy gS&
(1) 'kwU; (2) 3.9 N
(3) 5.0 N (4) 49 N
Q.28 ,d =kqfV;qDr rqyk dh Hkqtk;sa leku gSA ,d oLrq
W1 Hkkj n'kkZrh gSA tc ,d iyM+s ij j[kh tkrh gS
rFkk W2 Hkkj n'kkZrh gS tc nwljs iyM+s ij j[kh
tkrh gSA oLrq dk lgh Hkkj W gS&
(1) (W1 × W2) 1/2
2
1
2
2
(2) ( W + W )
1/
2
(3) ( 1 2)
/ 2 W W +
(4) 2W1W2/(W1 + W2)

Q.29 Two particles of mass m each are tied at the ends
of a light string of length 2a. The whole system is
kept on a frictionless horizontal surface with the
string held tight so that each mass is at a distance
a from the centre P (as shown in the figure).
Now, the mid point of the string is pulled
vertically upwards with a small but constant force
F. As a result, the particles move towards each
other on the surface. The magnitude of
acceleration, when the separation between them
becomes 2x, is:
F
m
P
m
a a
F
(1)
2m a
2 2
a − x
F
(2)
2m x
2
a − x
(3)
F
2m
x
a
(4)
F
2m
2
a − x
x
Q.30 A 3hp motor requires 2.4 kW to drive it; its
efficiency is about:
(1) 90% (2) 75% (3) 60% (4) 50%
Q.31 If the potential energy of a gas molecule is
M N
U = − 6 12
r r
, M and N being positive constants,
then the potential energy at equilibrium must be:
(1) zero
2
M
(2)
4N
2
N
(3)
4M
(4)
2
MN
Q.32 A force of (5 + 3x) N acting on a body of mass
20 kg a long the x-axis displaces it from x = 2m
to x = 6m. The work done by the force is:
(1) 20 J (2) 48 J
(3)68 J (4) 86 J
4
2
2
Q.29 nks d.k izR;sd m nzO;eku ds] 2a yEckbZ dh ,d
gYdh Mksjh ds fljksa ij ca/ks gSA lEiw.kZ fudk; ,d
?k"kZ.k jfgr {kSfrt lrg ij bl izdkj j[kk gS] fd
Mksjh dlh jgs rkfd izR;sd nzO;eku] dsUnz P ls a
nwjh ij jgsA (fp=kkuqlkj)A vc Mksjh ds e/; fcUnq
dks Å/okZ/kj Åij dh vksj ,d NksVs ijUrq fu;r
cy F ds lkFk [khapk tkrk gSA ifjek.kLo#i d.k
lrg ij ,d nwljs dhs vksj xfr djrs gSA Roj.k
dk ifjek.k tc muds e/; dh nwjh 2x gks] gS&
m
P
m
a a
F
(1)
2m a
2 2
a − x
F
(2)
2m x
2
a − x
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(3)
F
2m
x
a
F
(4)
F
2m
2
a − x
x
Q.30 ,d 3hp dh eksVj dks pykus ds fy, 2.4 kW
vko';d gS] rks bldh n{krk yxHkx gS&
(1) 90% (2) 75% (3) 60% (4) 50%
Q.31 ;fn ,d xSl v.kq dh fLFkfrt ÅtkZ
M N
U = − 6 12
r r
gS] M rFkk N /kukRed fu;rakd gS]
rc lkE; ij fLFkfrt ÅtkZ gksxh&
(1) 'kwU;
2
M
(2)
4N
2
N
(3)
4M
(4)
2
MN
Q.32 20 kg dh ,d oLrq ij (5 + 3x) N dk ,d cy
x-v{k ds vuqfn'k dk;Z dj jgk gSA ;g bls
x = 2m ls x = 6m rd foLFkkfir dj nsrk gSA cy
}kjk fd;k x;k dk;Z gS&
(1) 20 J (2) 48 J
(3)68 J (4) 86 J
4
2
2

Q.33 A bullet of mass m hits a target of mass M
hanging by a string and gets embedded in it. If the
block rises to a height h as a result of this
collision, the velocity of the bullet before
collision is:
(1) v = 2gh
(2) v = 2gh[ 1+
( m / M )]
(3) v = 2gh[( 1+
M / m)]
(4) v = 2gh[ 1−
( m / M )]
Q.34 A sphere of mass m moving with a constant
velocity u hits another stationary sphere of the
same mass. If e is the coefficient of restitution,
then ratio of velocities of the two spheres after
collision will be:
⎛1
− e ⎞ ⎛1
+ e ⎞ ⎛ e + 1⎞
⎛ e −1
⎞
(1) ⎜ ⎟ (2) ⎜ ⎟ (3) ⎜ ⎟ (4) ⎜ ⎟
⎝1
+ e ⎠ ⎝1
− e ⎠ ⎝ e −1
⎠ ⎝ e + 1⎠
Q.35 A rod of length L is hinged from one end. It is
brought to a horizontal position and released. The
angular velocity of the rod when it is in vertical
position is:
(1) 2 g / L (2) 3 g / L (3) g / 2L
(4) g / L
Q.36 A diverging beam of light from a point source S
having divergence angle α, falls symmetrically on
a glass slab as shown in figure. The angle of
incidence of two extreme rays are equal. If the
thickness of the glass slab is t and the refractive
index n, then the divergence angle of the
emergent beam is:
S
i
α
n
(1) zero (2) α
(3) sin –1 (1/n) (4) 2 sin –1 (1/n)
Q.37 The distance between the objective lens and the
eye lens of an astronomical telescope when
adjusted for parallel light is 100 cm. The
measured value of the magnification is 19. The
focal lengths of the lenses are:
(1) 85 and 15 cm (2) 82 and 18 cm
(3) 95 and 5 cm (4) 50 and 50 cm
i
t
Q.33 m nzO;eku dh ,d xksyh ,d Mksjh }kjk yVd jgs
M nzO;eku ds ,d y{; ls Vdjkrh gS rFkk blesa
/k¡l tkrh gSA ;fn bl VDdj ds ifj.kkeLo#i
CykWd h Å¡pkbZ rd mB tkrk gS] rks VDdj ds iwoZ
xksyh dk osx gS&
(1) v = 2gh
(2) v = 2gh[ 1+
( m / M )]
(3) v = 2gh[( 1+
M / m)]
(4) v = 2gh[ 1−
( m / M )]
Q.34 m nzO;eku dk ,d xksyk fu;r osx u ls xfr djrk
gqvk leku nzO;eku ds nwljs fLFkj xksys ls Vdjkrk
gSA ;fn izR;koLFkku xq.kkad e gks] rc VDdj ds
i'pkr~ nksuksa xksyksa ds osxksa dk vuqikr gksxk&
⎛1
− e ⎞ ⎛1
+ e ⎞ ⎛ e + 1⎞
⎛ e −1
⎞
(1) ⎜ ⎟ (2) ⎜ ⎟ (3) ⎜ ⎟ (4) ⎜ ⎟
⎝1
+ e ⎠ ⎝1
− e ⎠ ⎝ e −1
⎠ ⎝ e + 1⎠
Q.35 L yEckbZ dh ,d NM+ blds ,d fljs ls c) gS] bls
{kSfrt fLFkfr eas ys tkdj NksM+k tkrk gSA NM+ dk
dks.kh; osx tc ;g Å/okZ/kj fLFkfr esa gS] gksxk&
(1) 2 g / L (2) 3 g / L (3) g / 2L
(4) g / L
Q.36 ,d fcUnq L=kksr S ftldk vilkjh dks.k α gS] ls
izkIr izdk'k dk ,d vilkjh iqat fp=kkuqlkj ,d
dk¡p dh ifêdk ij lefer #i ls fxjrk gSA nks
pje fdj.kksa dk vkiru dks.k cjkcj gSA ;fn dk¡p
dh ifêdk dh eksVkbZ t rFkk viorZukad n gks] rc
fuxZr iqat dk vilkjh dks.k gS&
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 Page # 8
i
α
(1) 'kwU; (2) α
(3) sin –1 (1/n) (4) 2 sin –1 (1/n)
n
S
Q.37 ,d [kxksyh; nwjn'khZ ds vfHkn`';d ySal rFkk uS=k
ySal ds e/; nwjh 100cm gS] lekUrj izdk'k ds fy,
O;ofLFkr fd;k tkrk gSA vko/kZu dk Kkr fd;k x;k
eku 19 gSA ySalks dh Qksdl nwfj;k¡ gS&
(1) 85 rFkk 15 cm (2) 82 rFkk 18 cm
(3) 95 rFkk 5 cm (4) 50 rFkk 50 cm
i
t

Q.38 Four independent waves are expressed as:
(i) y1 = a1 sin ωt (ii) y2 = a2 sin 2ωt
(iii) y3 = a3 cos ωt (iv) y4 = a4 sin (ωt + π/3)
The interference is possible between:
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) and (iv)
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) Not possible at all
Q.39 Interference proves:
(1) transverse nature of a wave
(2) longitudinal nature of a wave
(3) wave-nature
(4) particle-nature
Q.40 In Young's double slit interference experimebnt if
the distance between the slits is made 3-fold, the
fringe width becomes:
(1) (1/3)-fold (2) 3-fold
(3) (1/9)-fold (4) 9-fold
Q.41 As intensity of incident light increases
(1) photoelectric current increase
(2) K.E. of emitted photoelectron increases
(3) photo electric current decreases
(4) K.E. of emitted photoelectrons decreases
Q.42 According to Einstein's photoelectric equation, the
plot of the kinetic energy of the emitted photo
electrons from a metal Vs the frequency of the
incident radiation gives an straight line whose slope
(1) depends both on the intensity of the radiation
and the metal used
(2) depends on the intensity of the radiation
(3) depends on the nature of the metal used
(4) is the same for the all metals and independent of
the intensity of the radiation
Q.43 The velocity of a body of rest mass m0 is
3
c
2
(Where c is the velocity of light in vacuum). The
mass of this body is:
⎛
(1) ⎜
⎝
3 ⎞
⎟m0
2 ⎟
⎠
⎛ 1 ⎞
(2) ⎜ ⎟m0
⎝ 2 ⎠
(3) 3m0 (4) 2m0
Q.38 pkj Lora=k rjaxs bl izdkj ls iznf'kZr dh xbZ gS:
(i) y1 = a1 sin ωt (ii) y2 = a2 sin 2ωt
(iii) y3 = a3 cos ωt (iv) y4 = a4 sin (ωt + π/3)
O;frdj.k fdlds e/; laHko gS&
(1) (i) o (ii) (2) (i) o (iv)
(3) (iii) o (iv) (4) laHko ugha gS
Q.39 O;frdj.k fl) djrk gS&
(1) rjax dh vuqizLFk izd`fr
(2) rjax dh vuqnS/;Z izd`fr
(3) rjax izd`fr
(4) d.k izd`fr
Q.40 ;ax f}fLyV O;frdj.k iz;ksx esa ;fn fLyVksa ds e/;
dh nwjh 3-xquh dj nh tk;s] rks fÝUt pkSM+kbZ gks
tk;sxh&
(1) (1/3)-xquk (2) 3-xquk
(3) (1/9)-xquk (4) 9-xquk
Q.41 vkifrr izdk'k dh rhozrk c

Q.44 At time t = 0, N1 nuclei of decay constant λ1 and
N2 nuclei of decay constant λ2 are mixed. The
decay rate of mixture is -
( 1 2 ) t
(1) N N e
λ + λ −
−
⎛
(2) −
⎜
⎝ N
1 2
N 1 ⎞ −(
λ1+
λ2
) t
⎟
⎟e
2
⎠
−λ
t
−λ
t
1 1 1 2
( 1 2 ) t
1 1N
2 2e
λ + λ −
λ λ
1
2
(3) − ( N λ e + N λ e )
(4) − N
Q.45 Electrons with de-Broglie wavelength λ fall on
the target in an X-ray tube. The cut-off
wavelength of the emitted X-rays is
mc
(1)
h
2
2 λ
2h
λ 0 =
(2) 0
mc
= λ
2
2
3
2m
c λ
(3) λ0 =
(4) λ0 = λ
2
h
Q.46 The intensity of gamma radiation from a given
source is I0. On passing through 37.5 mm of lead
it is reduced to I0/8. The thickness of lead which
will reduce it to I0/2 is
(1) (37.5) 1/3 mm (2) (37.5) 1/4 mm
(3) 37.5/3 mm (4) (37.5/4) mm
Q.47 A proton moving with a velocity 3 × 10 5 ms –1
enters a magnetic field of 0.3 tesla at an angle of
30º with the field. The radius of curvature of its
path will be (e/m for proton ≈ 10 8 C/kg)
(1) 0.02 cm (2) 0.5 cm
(3) 2 cm (4) 1.25 cm
Q.48 If mass-energy equivalence is taken into account,
when water is cooled to form ice, the mass of
water should -
(1) increase
(2) remain unchanged
(3) decrease
(4) first increase then decrease
Q.44 le; t = 0 ij {k;kad λ1 ds N1 ukfHkd rFkk {k;kad λ2 ds
N2 ukfHkd fefJr fd;s tkrs gSA feJ.k dh {k; nj gS&
( 1 2)
t
(1) N1N
2e
λ + λ −
−
⎛ N 1 ⎞ −(
λ1+
λ2
) t
(2) −
⎜ e
N ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠
−λ
t
−λ
t
1 1 1 2
( 1 2 ) t
1 1N
2 2e
λ + λ −
λ λ
1
2
(3) − ( N λ e + N λ e )
(4) − N
Q.45 Mh czksXyh rjaxnS/;Z λ ds bysDVªkWu ,d X-fdj.k ufydk
esa y{; ij fxjrs gSA mRlftZr X-fdj.kksa dh vUrd
(cut-off) rjaxnS/;Z gS&
2 λ
(1) λ 0 =
(2)
h
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mc 2
2
2
3
2h
0
mc
= λ
2m
c λ
(3) λ0 =
(4) λ0 = λ
2
h
Q.46 ,d fn;s x;s L=kksr ls izkIr xkek fofdj.k dh rhozrk I0
gSA 37.5 mm dh lhls dh ifêdk ls xqtjus ij bldh
rhozrk ?kVdj I0/8 gks tkrh gSA lhls dh ifêdk dh
eksVkbZ tks bldh rhozrk ?kVkdj I0/2 dj ns] gS&
(1) (37.5) 1/3 mm (2) (37.5) 1/4 mm
(3) 37.5/3 mm (4) (37.5/4) mm
Q.47 ,d izksVkWu 3 × 10 5 ms –1 ds osx ls xfr djrk gqvk
0.3 Vslyk ds ,d pqEcdh; {ks=k esa {ks=k ls 30º ds dks.k
ij izos'k djrk gSA blds iFk dh oØrk f=kT;k gksxh&
(izksVkWu ds fy, e/m ≈ 10 8 C/kg)
(1) 0.02 cm (2) 0.5 cm
(3) 2 cm (4) 1.25 cm
Q.48 ;fn nzO;eku&ÅtkZ rqY;kad dks ekuk tk;s rks tc ty
dks B.Mk dj cQZ esa cnyk tkrk gS] rks ty dk
nzO;eku&
(1) c

Q.49 In the nuclear fusion reaction
2
3
4
1 H + 1H
→ 2He
+ n
given that the repulsive potential energy between
the two nuclei is ~ 7.7 × 10 –14 J, the temperature
at which the gases must be heated to initiate the
reaction is nearly
[Boltzmann's constant k = 1.38 × 10 –23 J/K]
(1) 10 7 K (2) 10 5 K
(3) 10 3 K (4) 10 9 K
Q.50 The production of band spectra is caused by
(1) atomic nuclei (2) hot metals
(3) molecules (4) electrons
Q.49 ukfHkdh; lay;u vfHkfØ;k esa
2 3 4
1 H + 1H
→ 2He
+ n
fn;k x;k gS fd nks ukfHkdksa ds e/; izfrd"khZ fLFkfrt
ÅtkZ ~ 7.7 × 10 –14 a J gS] rks rki ftl ij xSlks dks xje
fd;k tkuk pkfg;s ftlls fd vfHkfØ;k izkjEHk gksrh gS]
yxHkx gS&
[cksYVteku fu;rakd k = 1.38 × 10 –23 J/K]
(1) 10 7 K (2) 10 5 K
(3) 10 3 K (4) 10 9 K
Q.50 cS.M LisDVªe dk mRiknu fdlds dkj.k gksrk gS
(1) ijek.kqd ukfHkdksa }kjk (2) xeZ /kkrqvksa }kjk
(3) v.kqvksa }kjk (4) bysDVªkWuksa }kjk
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Q.51 Which of the following compounds is covalent ?
(1) Ba(NO3)2 (2) MgSO4
(3) BeF2 (4) CaO
Q.52 Which of the following compounds is a peroxide ?
(1) MnO2 (2) SnO2
(3) BaO2 (4) SiO2
Q.53 When hydrated MgCl2.6H2O is strongly heated then -
(1) MgO is formed
(2) anhydrous MgCl2 is formed
(3) Mg(OH)HCl is formed
(4) Mg(OH)Cl is formed
Q.54 Anhydrous AlCl3 produces fumes in the air because
of -
(1) dimerization (2) hydrolysis
(3) oxidation (4) dissociation
Q.55 The mercury (I) ion usually exists as
(1) [Hg–Hg] + (2) [Hg–Hg] 2+
(3) Hg + (4) Hg 2+
Q.56 Zn reacts with concentrated NaOH solution to
produce -
2–
(1) ZnO and H2 2
2–
(2) ZnO and H2
4
2–
(3) ZnO and O2
2–
(4) ZnO only
2
Q.57 The metals of group 12 are relatively soft as
compared to other transition metals because -
(1) they possess half-filled d orbitals
(2) their d electrons participate in forming metallic
bonds
(3) they have low ionization energies
(4) their d electrons do not participate in forming
metallic bonds
Q.58 Expansion of octet explains the formation of -
2–
6
2–
6
(1) PbCl (2) Pb ( OH)
2
2–
6
(3) Sn ( OH)
(4) all of these
Q.59 The IUPAC name for Ba[BrF4]2 is -
(1) barium bromofluoride (III)
(2) barium bis [tetrafluorobrominate (III)]
(3) barium bis (tetrafluorobromate) (V)
(4) barium tetrafluorobromate (III)
CHEMISTRY
Q.51 fuEu esa ls dkSulk lgla;kstd ;kSfxd gS \
(1) Ba(NO3)2 (2) MgSO4
(3) BeF2 (4) CaO
Q.52 fuEu eas ls dkSulk ;kSfxd ijkWDlkbM gS \
(1) MnO2 (2) SnO2
(3) BaO2 (4) SiO2
Q.53 tc tyh; MgCl2.6H2O dks izcyrk ls xeZ fd;k
tkrk gS] rc -
(1) MgO curk gS
(2) futZy MgCl2 curk gS
(3) Mg(OH)HCl curk gS
(4) Mg(OH)Cl curk gS
Q.54 fuEu esa ls fdl dkj.k] futZy AlCl3 , ok;q esa /kwe cukrk
gS -
(1) f}Ykdhdj.k (2) ty-vi?kVu
(3) vkWDlhdj.k (4) fo;kstu
Q.55 lkekU;r;k edZjh (I) vk;u fdl :Ik esa jgrk gS -
(1) [Hg–Hg] + (2) [Hg–Hg] 2+
(3) Hg + (4) Hg 2+
Q.56 Zn, lkUnz NaOH foy;u ds lkFk fØ;k djds nsrk gS
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-(1)
2–
ZnO 2 o H2
2–
(2) ZnO4 o H2
2–
2
2
ZnO 2
–
(3) ZnO o O2 (4) dsoy
Q.57 oxZ 12 dh /kkrq,¡ vis{kkd`r vU; laØe.k /kkrqvksa ls
e`nq gksrh gS D;ksafd -
(1) buesa v)Ziqfjr d-d{kd gksrk gS
(2) blds d-bysDVªkWu /kkfRod ca/k cukus es iz;qDr gksrs gS
(3) bldh vk;uu ÅtkZ,¡ de gksrh gS
(4) blds d-bysDVªkWu] /kkfRod ca/k cukus esa iz;qDr ugha
gksrs
Q.58 v"Vd dk izlkj fuEu esa fdlds fuekZ.k dks le>krk gS -
2–
(1) PbCl 6
2–
(2) Pb ( OH)
6
2–
(3) Sn ( OH)
(4) mijksDr lHkh
6
Q.59 Ba[BrF4]2 dk IUPAC uke gS -
(1) csfj;e czkseksyksjkbM (III)
(2) csfj;e fcl [VsVªkyksjksczksehusV (III)]
(3) csfj;e fcl (VsVªkyksjksczksesV) (V)
(4) csfj;e VsVªkyksjksczksesV (III)

Q.60 Which of the following statements is not true for
the reaction given below ?
[Cu(H2O)] 2+ + 4NH3 [Cu(NH3)4] 2+ + 4H2O
(1) It is a ligand-substitution reaction.
(2) NH3 is a relatively strong-field ligand while
H2O is a weak-field ligand.
(3) During the reaction, there is a change in colour
from light blue to dark blue.
(4) [Cu(NH3)4] 2+ has a tetrahedral structure, and is
paramagnetic.
Q.61 Which of the following will have three stereoisomeric
forms ?
(i) [Cr(NO3)3(NH3)3] (ii) K3[Co(C2O4)3]
(iii) K3[Co(C2O4)2Cl2] (iv) [Co(en)2ClBr] +
(where en = ethylene diamine)
(1) (iv) and (iii) (2) (iv) and (i)
(3) (iii) and (ii) (4) (i) and (ii)
Q.62 Which of the following is a bidentate ligand ?
(1) Oxalato (2) Carbonato
(3) Glycinato (4) All of these
Q.63 Which of the following coordination compounds
exhibits ionization isomerism ?
(1) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 (2) [Cr(en)3]Cl3
(3) [Cr(en)3]Cl3 (4) [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4
Q.64 The ionization isomer of [Cr(H2O)4Cl(NO2)]Cl is -
(1) [Cr(H2O)4(O2N)]Cl2
(2) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2](NO2)
(3) [Cr(H2O)4Cl(ONO)]Cl
(4) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2(NO2)].H2O
Q.65 Which of the following nitrates on heating does
not decomposes to give NO2 ?
(1) Ca(NO3)2 (2) NH4NO3
(3) Hg(NO3)2 (4) Pb(NO3)2
Q.66 Which process involves the roasting process -
(1) ZnCO3 → ZnO + CO2
(2) Fe2O3 + 3C → 2Fe + 3SO2
(3) 2PbS + 3O2 → 2PbO + 2SO2
(4) Al2O3.2H2O → Al2O3 + 2H2O
Q.67 Which of the following can not reduced by coke -
(1) Cu2O, SnO2 (2) Fe2O3
(3) Al2O3 (4) PbO, Fe2O3
Q.60 fuEu esa ls dkSulk dFku uhps nh xbZ vfHkfØ;k ds
fy, lR; ugh gS \
[Cu(H2O)] 2+ + 4NH3 [Cu(NH3)4] 2+ + 4H2O
(1) ;g fyxs.M-izfrLFkkiu vfHkfØ;k gS
(2) NH3 vIks{kkd`r izcy-{ks=k fyxs.M gS tcfd H2O
nqcZy-{ks=k fyxs.M gS
(3) vfHkfØ;k ds nkSjku jax] gYds uhys ls xgjs uhys
es ifjofrZr gks tkrk gS
(4) [Cu(NH3)4] 2+ dh lajpuk prq"Qydh; gksrh gS
rFkk ;g vuqpqEcdh; gksrk gS
Q.61 fuEu esa ls dkSulk] rhu f=kfoe leko;oh voLFkk,¡
cuk;sxk \
(i) [Cr(NO3)3(NH3)3] (ii) K3[Co(C2O4)3]
(iii) K3[Co(C2O4)2Cl2] (iv) [Co(en)2ClBr] +
(tgk¡ en = ,fFkyhu MkbZ,ehu)
(1) (iv) rFkk (iii) (2) (iv) rFkk (i)
(3) (iii) rFkk (ii) (4) (i) rFkk (ii)
Q.62 fuEu esa ls dkSulk f}nqUrd fyxs.M gS \
(1) vkWDlsysVks (2) dkcksZusVks
(3) XykbflusVks (4) lHkh lgh gS
Q.63 fuEu esa ls dkSulk milgla;kstd ;kSfxd vk;uu
leko;ork n'kkZrk gS \
(1) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 (2) [Cr(en)3]Cl3
(3) [Cr(en)3]Cl3 (4) [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4
Q.64 [Cr(H2O)4Cl(NO2)]Cl dk vk;uu leko;oh gS -
(1) [Cr(H2O)4(O2N)]Cl2
(2) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2](NO2)
(3) [Cr(H2O)4Cl(ONO)]Cl
(4) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2(NO2)].H2O
Q.65 fuEu esa ls dkSulk ukbVªsV xeZ djus ij fo;ksftr
gksdj NO2 nsrk gS \
(1) Ca(NO3)2 (2) NH4NO3
(3) Hg(NO3)2 (4) Pb(NO3)2
Q.66 fuEu esa ls fdl izØe esa HktZu fof/k gksrh gS -
(1) ZnCO3 → ZnO + CO2
(2) Fe2O3 + 3C → 2Fe + 3SO2
(3) 2PbS + 3O2 → 2PbO + 2SO2
(4) Al2O3.2H2O → Al2O3 + 2H2O
Q.67 fuEu esa ls dkSulk dksd }kjk vipf;r ugha fd;k
tk ldrk gS -
(1) Cu2O, SnO2 (2) Fe2O3
(3) Al2O3 (4) PbO, Fe2O3
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Q.68 The electronic configuration of silver atom in ground
state is -
(1) [Ar] 3d 10 , 4s 1
(2) [Xr] 4f 14 , 5d 10 , 6s 1
(3) [Kr] 4d 10 , 5s 1
(2) [Kr] 4d 9 , 5s 2
Q.69 Total number of orientations of sub level in n th
orbit is -
(1) 2n (2) 2l + 1
(3) n 2 (4) 2n 2
Q.70 The KE of electron in He + will be maximum in -
(1) 3 rd orbit (2) 2 nd orbit
(3) 1 st orbit (4) In orbit with n = ∞
Q.71 The number of molecules in 16 g of methane is -
(1) 3.0 × 10 23 (2) 6.02 × 10 23
(3)
16 23 16 23
×10 (4) × 10
6.
02
3.
0
Q.72 If 20 mL of 0.4 N NaOH solution completely
neutralizes 40 mL of a dibasic acid, the molarity
of the acid solution is -
(1) 0.1 M (2) 0.2 M
(3) 0.3 M (4) 0.4 M
Q.73 How many moles of magnesium phosphate,
Mg3(PO4)2 will contain 0.25 mole of oxygen atoms ?
(1) 0.02 (2) 3.125 × 10 –2
(3) 1.25 × 10 –2 (4) 2.5 × 10 –2
Q.74 For the cell Zn | Zn 2+ || Cu 2+ | Cu, If the
concentration of Zn 2+ and Cu 2+ ions is doubled,
the e.m.f of the cell -
(1) doubles (2) reduces to half
(3) remains same (4) becomes zero
Q.75 Standard reduction potential of an element is equal to -
(1) +1 × its reduction potential
(2) – 1 × its standard oxidation potential
(3) 0.00
(4) +1 × its standard oxidation potential
Q.76 Which will increase the voltage of the cell
Sn(s) + 2Ag + (aq) –→ Sn 2+ (aq) + 2Ag(s) ?
(1) Increase in size of the silver rod
(2) Increase in the concentration of Sn 2+ ion
(3) Increase in the concentration of Ag + ions
(4) None of the above
Q.68 flYoj ijek.kq esa vk| voLFkk dk bysDVªkWfud foU;kl gS -
(1) [Ar] 3d 10 , 4s 1
(2) [Xr] 4f 14 , 5d 10 , 6s 1
(3) [Kr] 4d 10 , 5s 1
(2) [Kr] 4d 9 , 5s 2
Q.69 n th dks'k eas miLRkj ds vfHkfoU;klksa dh dqy la[;k gS -
(1) 2n (2) 2l + 1
(3) n 2 (4) 2n 2
Q.70 He + eas bysDVªkWuksa dh vf/kdre xfrt ÅtkZ gksrh gS -
(1) 3 rd dks'k (2) 2 nd okys dks'k esa
(3) 1 st dks'k (4) n = ∞ okys dks'k esa
Q.71 16 g esFksu esa v.kqvksa dh la[;k gS -
(1) 3.0 × 10 23 (2) 6.02 × 10 23
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(3)
16 23
×10 (4)
6.
02
16 23
× 10
3.
0
Q.72 ;fn 0.4 N NaOH dk 20 mL foy;u ,d f}{kkjh;
vEy ds 40 mL dks iw.kZr;k mnklhu djrk gS] rks
vEyh; foy;u dh eksyjrk gS -
(1) 0.1 M (2) 0.2 M
(3) 0.3 M (4) 0.4 M
Q.73 eSXusf'k;e QkWLQsV, Mg3(PO4)2 ds fdrus eksy, 0.25
eksy vkWDlhtu ijek.kq j[krs gS \
(1) 0.02 (2) 3.125 × 10 –2
(3) 1.25 × 10 –2 (4) 2.5 × 10 –2
Q.74 Zn | Zn 2+ || Cu 2+ | Cu lsy ds fy, ;fn Zn 2+ rFkk
Cu 2+ vk;uksa dh lkUnzrk nqxquh dh tk,] rks lsy dk
e.m.f gS -
(1) nqxquk (2) vk/kk gksxk
(3) vifjofrZRk (4) 'kwU; gksxk
Q.75 ,d rRo dk ekud vip;u foHko cjkcj gksrk gS -
(1) +1 × bldk vip;u foHko
(2) – 1 × bldk ekud vkWDlhdj.k foHko
(3) 0.00
(4) +1 × bldk ekud vkWDlhdj.k foHko
Q.76 dkSulk lsy dk foHko c

Q.77 During electrolysis of H2O, the molar ratio of H2
and O2 formed is -
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 1
Q.78 At liquid vapour equilibrium the two phases have
equal -
(1) potential energy (2) intermolecular forces
(3) temperature (4) none of these
Q.79 What is the molality of ethyl alcohol (mol. Wt. = 46)
in aqueous solution which freezes at – 10°C ?
(Kf of H2O = 1.86 K molality –1 )
(1) 3.540 (2) 4.567
(3) 5.376 (4) 6.315
Q.80 Which solution would exhibit abnormal osmotic
pressure ?
(1) Aqueous solution of urea
(2) Aqueous solution of common salt
(3) Aqueous solution of glucose
(4) Aqueous solution of sucrose
Q.81 For a reaction of II order kinetics, t1/2 is -
(1) ∝ a (2) ∝ a –3
(3) ∝ a 2 (4) ∝ a –1
Q.82 For a first order reaction A –→ Product, the initial
concentration of A is 0.1 M and after 40 minute it
becomes 0.025 M. Calculate the rate of reaction at
reactant concentration of 0.01 M -
(1) 3.47 × 10 –4 M min –1
(2) 3.47 × 10 –5 M min –1
(3) 1.735 × 10 –6 M min –1
(4) None
Q.83 The pH of an acidic buffer mixture is -
(1) > 7
(2) < 7
(3) = 7
(4) depends upon Ka of acid
Q.84 Which solid is less soluble in 0.50 M HCl than in
water ?
(1) ZnCO3 (2) Hg2Cl2
(3) PbBr2 (4) AgI
Q.85 10 –2 mole of KOH is dissolved in 10 litre of
solution. The pH of the solution is -
(1) 12 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 11
Q.86 50% neutralization of a solution of formic acid
(Ka = 2 × 10 –4 ) with NaOH would result in a
solution having a hydrogen ion concentration of -
(1) 2 × 10 –4 (2) 3.7 (3) 2.7 (4) 1.85
Q.77 H2O ds fo|qr vi?kVu ds nkSjku] fufeZRk H2 o O2 dk
eksyj vuqikr gS -
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 1
Q.78 nzo ok"Ik lkE; ij nksuksa voLFkk,¡ ds leku gksrs gS -
(1) fLFkfrt ÅtkZ (2) vUr%v.kqd cy
(3) rki (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
Q.79 tyh; foy;u es ,fFky ,YdksgkWy (v.kqHkkj = 46) dh
eksyyrk D;k gS tks– 10°C ij terk gS \
(H2O dk Kf = 1.86 K molality –1 )
(1) 3.540 (2) 4.567
(3) 5.376 (4) 6.315
Q.80 fuEu esa ls dkSulk foYk;u vlkekU; ijklj.k nkc
n'kkZ,xk \
(1) ;wfj;k dk tyh; foy;u
(2) lkekU; yo.k dk tyh; foy;u
(3) Xywdkst dk tyh; foy;u
(4) lqØkst dk tyh; foy;u
Q.81 f}rh; dksfV xfrdh okyh vfHkfØ;k dk t1/2 gS -
(1) ∝ a (2) ∝ a –3
(3) ∝ a 2 (4) ∝ a –1
Q.82 ,d izFke dksfV vfHkfØ;k A –→ mRikn ds fy, A dh
izkjfEHkd lkUnzrk 0.1 M rFkk 40 feuV Ik'pkr~ 0.025 M
gSA 0.01 M dh vfHkdkjd lkUnzrk ij vfHkfØ;k dh nj
Kkr dhft, -
(1) 3.47 × 10 –4 M min –1
(2) 3.47 × 10 –5 M min –1
(3) 1.735 × 10 –6 M min –1
(4) dksbZ ugha
Q.83 ,d vEyh; cQj feJ.k dk pH gksrk gS -
(1) > 7
(2) < 7
(3) = 7
(4) vEy ds Ka ij fuHkZj djrk gS
Q.84 dkSulk Bksl ty dh vis{kk 0.50 M HCl esa de
foys; gksrk gS \
(1) ZnCO3 (2) Hg2Cl2
(3) PbBr2 (4) AgI
Q.85 10 –2 eksy KOH dks 10 yhVj foy;u esa ?kksyk tkrk
gSA foy;u dk pH gS -
(1) 12 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 11
Q.86 NaOH }kjk QkWfeZd vEy (Ka = 2 × 10 –4 ) dk 50%
mnklhuhdj.k ds ifj.kkeLo:Ik izkIr foy;u es
gkbMªkstu vk;u dh lkUnzrk gksrh gS -
(1) 2 × 10 –4 (2) 3.7 (3) 2.7 (4) 1.85
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Q.87 Cell constant has the unit -
(1) cm (2) cm –1
(3) cm 2 (4) cm sec –1
Q.88 The Gibbs energy change and standard Gibbs
energy change are equal if reaction quotient is
equal to -
(1) zero (2) 1 (3) > 1 (4) < 1
Q.89 During an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas is -
(1) enthalpy decreases
(2) internal energy deceases
(3) internal energy increases
(4) internal energy remains constant
Q.90 Latent heat of vaporisation of a liquid at 500 K
and 1 atm pressure is 10.0 kcal/mol. What will be
the change in internal energy (∆U) of 3 mole of
liquid at same temperature ?
(1) 13.0 kcal (2) – 13.0 kcal
(3) 27.0 kcal (4) – 27.0 kcal
Q.91 Endothermic compounds are generally -
(1) less stable
(2) have weaker bonds
(3) have positive enthalpies of formation
(4) all are correct
Q.92 Heat of neutralization of HF is -
(1) 57.32 kJ (2) > 57.32 kJ
(3) < 57.32 kJ (4) none of these
Q.93 The oxidation number of Pt in [Pt(C2H4)Cl3] – is -
(1) +1 (2) +2 (3) +3 (4) +4
Q.94 Oxidation state of oxygen is – 1 in the compound -
(1) NO2 (2) MnO2
(3) PbO2 (4) Na2O2
Q.95 When KMnO4 is reduced with oxalic acid in
acidic medium, the oxidation number of Mn
changes from -
(1) + 7 to + 4 (2) + 6 to + 4
(3) + 7 to + 2 (4) + 4 to + 2
Q.96
The correct relation between Kp and Kc for the
reaction aX + bY bZ + aW is -
(1) Kp = Kc [RT] a + b (2) Kp =
(3) Kp = Kc [RT] (4) Kp = Kc
K
c
(a + b)
2
Q.87 lsy fu;rkad dh bdkbZ gS -
(1) cm (2) cm –1
(3) cm 2 (4) cm sec –1
Q.88 fxCl ÅtkZ ifjorZu rFkk ekud fxCl ÅtkZ ifjorZu
cjkcj gksrs gS ;fn vfHkfØ;k xq.kkad cjkcj gksrk gS -
(1) 'kwU; (2) 1 (3) > 1 (4) < 1
Q.89 ,d vkn'kZ xSl ds lerkih izlkj ds nkSjku -
(1) ,UFkSYih ?kVrh gS
(2) vkUrfjd ÅtkZ ?kVrh gS
(3) vkUrfjd ÅtkZ c

Q.97 The equilibrium constant for the reactions,
N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g)
1
NO(g) + O2(g)
2
NO2(g) are K1 and K2
respectively. Then the equilibrium constant for the
equilibrium N2(g) + 2O2(g) 2NO2(g) is -
(1) K1/K2 (2) K1K2
(3) K1
2
2
K (4)
2
K K2 1
Q.98 Which acts both as Bronsted Lowry acid and
base –
2–
3
(1) CO (2)
(3) BF3 (4)
+
H3 O
–
HSO 4
Q.99 Which is not a conjugate pair of acid-base -
(1) HS – , S 2– (2) H3O + , OH –
(3) HONO,
–
NO 2 (4) C6H5COOH, C6H5COO –
Q.100 Alum is used in purifying water by -
(1) Forming silicon complex with clay particles
(2) Sulphate part combines with dirt and removes it
(3) Coagulating the mud particles
(4) Making mud water soluble
Q.97 fuEu vfHkfØ;kvksa ds fy,]
N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g)
1
NO(g) + O2(g)
2
NO2(g) Øe'k% K1 rFkk K2 lkE;
fu;rkad gS fuEu lkE; ds fy, lkE; fu;rakd gS
N2(g) + 2O2(g) 2NO2(g) is -
(1) K1/K2 (2) K1K2
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(3) K1
2
2
K (4)
2
K K2 1
Q.98 dkSulk czkWULVsM ykWjh vEy rFkk {kkj nksuksa ds :Ik esa
dk;Z djrk gS -
2–
(1) CO 3
(2)
(3) BF3 (4)
+
H3 O
–
HSO 4
Q.99 dkSulk vEy-{kkj dk la;qXeh ;qXe ugha gS -
(1) HS – , S 2– (2) H3O + , OH –
–
(3) HONO, NO 2 (4) C6H5COOH, C6H5COO –
Q.100 fuEu }kjk ty ds 'kq)hdj.k esa fQVdjh dk mi;ksx
fd;k tkrk gS -
(1) ;g feV~Vh ds d.kksa ds lkFk flyhdkWu ladqy
cukrk gS
(2) lYQsV Hkkx xanxh ls tqM+dj bls gVkrk gS
(3) dhPkM+ ds d.kksa dk LdUnu djrk gS
(4) dhpM+ dks ty esa foys; cukrk gS

Q.101 In simplest type of placenta, six barriers separate
maternal blood from foetal blood. How many
barriers are lost in human placenta ?
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
Q.102 Extra-embryonic membranes provide-
(1) Cells to embryo (2) Protection to embryo
(3) Nutrition to embryo (4) Both (2) and (3)
Q.103 Clitoris in mammals is-
(1) Homologous to penis
(2) Analogous to penis
(3) Functional penis in female
(4) Non-functional
Q.104 Which is correct ?
(1) Menstrual cycle is present in all mammals
(2) Menstrual cycle is present in all primates
(3) Estrous cycle occurs in all mammals
(4) Most mammals are ovoviviparous
Q.105 Percentage of syndromes increases in the offspring
of a lady over 40 years. It is because-
(1) Oocytes grow older
(2) Ovaries are weak
(3) Placenta is weak
(4) Lady becomes weak
Q.106 Layer of blastocyst that gives rise to ectoderm is-
(1) Trophoectoderm (2) Embryo disc
(3) Cnidoblast (4) Amnion
Q.107 Termination of gastrulation is marked by-
(1) Closure of bastocoel
(2) Obliteration of archenteron
(3) Obliteration of blastocoel
(4) Closure of neural tube
Q.108 Which secretions are produced by spermatozoa at
the time of fertilization-
(1) Fertilizin and spermlysin
(2) Only spermlysin
(3) Fertilizin and antifertilizin
(4) Antifertilizin and spermlysin
BIOLOGY
Q.101 ljy izdkj ds vijk esa Hkzw.kh; jä dks ekr` jä ls
N% vojks/kksa }kjk vyx j[kk tkrk gSA ekuo vijk esa
fdrus vojks/k yqIr gks tkrs gSa ?
(1) ,d (2) nks
(3) rhu (4) pkj
Q.102 vfrfjDr Hkwz.kh; ¼,DlVªk&,Eczks;ksfud½ f>fYy;k¡ iznku
djrh gaS -
(1) Hkzw.k dks dksf'kdk,sa (2) Hkzw.k dks lqj{kk
(3) Hkzw.k dks iks"k.k (4) (2) o (3) nksuksa
Q.103 Lrfu;ksa esa fDyVksfjl gS -
(1) f'k'ku ds letkr
(2) f'k'ku ds vletkr
(3) eknk esa fØ;kRed f'k'ku
(4) vfØ;kRed
Q.104 dkSulk lgh gS ?
(1) _rq pØ lHkh Lru/kkfj;ksa esa mifLFkr gksrk gS
(2) _rq pØ lHkh izkbesV~l gksrk gS
(3) ,LVªl pØ lHkh Lru/kkfj;ksa esa gksrk gS
(4) vf/kdk¡'k Lruh v.Mtjk;qt gksrs gSa
Q.105 40 o"kks± ls Åij dh ,d efgyk dh larfr;ksa esa
fl.Mªkse dh izfr'krrk c

Q.109 Three carp fishes, Catla Labeo and Cirrhina, can
be grown together in the same pond more
economically as they have-
(1) Positive interactions
(2) Commensalism
(3) Symbiosis
(4) No competition for food
Q.110 To increase milk yield, cow is given-
(1) Sorbitol (2) Stillbesterol
(3) Prolactin (4) Gonadotrophin
Q.111 A viral disease of poultry is-
(1) Caryza (2) New castle disease
(3) Pasteurellosis (4) Salmone Losis
Q.112 MOET (multiple ovulation embryo transfer) is
method of-
(1) Fish cultivation (2) Hybridisation of cattle
(3) Birth control (4) Clonning of sheep
Q.113 Energy crops are-
(1) Sugarcane/sugarbeet, Potato and Tomato
(2) Sugarcane, Tapioca and Cauliflower
(3) Sugarcane, Potato and Tapioca
(4) Millets, Banana and Tomato
Q.114 Hormone responsible for initiation of spermatogenesis
is-
(1) Testosterone (2) Estrogen
(3) F.S.H. (4) L.H.
Q.115 Petro-crops are plants-
(1) Grown near oil fields
(2) Used in refining crude oil
(3) Whose fossil ramins formed crude oil
(4) From which petrol-like fuels can be derived
Q.116 Biogas contains-
(1) CH4 + CO + CO2 (2) CH4 + CO2 + H2
(3) CO + CO2 + H2 (4) CO + CO2 + NO2
Q.117 Statins are obtained from-
(1) Streptococcus
(2) Mucor javanicus
(3) Monascus purpureus
(4) Clostridium butyricum
Q.109 rhu dkiZ eNfy;k¡] dVyk] ysfc;ks rFkk dkbjkfguk dks
,d gh rkykc esa vf/kd vkfFkZd :i ls ,d lkFk o`f)
djok;k tk ldrk gS] D;ksafd ;s j[krh gSa -
(1) /kukRed vUrZfØ;k
(2) lgHkksftrk
(3) lkgp;Z
(4) Hkkstu ds fy, dksbZ izfrLi/kkZ ugha
Q.110 nqX/k mRikndrk c

Q.118 Streptomycin is prepared from-
(1) Streptomyces antiboticus
(2) Streptomyces nodosus
(3) Streptomyces griseus
(4) Streptomyces rimosus
Q.119 Which one is used in production of alcohol ?
(1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(2) Torulopsis utilis
(3) Clostridium botulinum
(4) Leuconostoc citrovorum
Q.120 Which group is responsible for formation and
flavour of yoghurt-
(1) Bacillus megathermus and Xanthomonas sp.
(2) Bacillus subtilis and E.coli
(3) Rhizobium meiloti and Azotobacter
(4) Lactobacillus casei and Streptococcus thermophilus
Q.121 Genetically engineered bacteria are being used in
commercial production of-
(1) Melatonin (2) Testosterone
(3) Human insulin (4) Thyroxine
Q.122 Bt cotton has been produced by-
(1) In situ hybridization of Bt gene
(2) Northern blotting of Bt gene
(3) Cloning of Bt gene
(4) Southern blotting of Bt gene
Q.123 Flavr Savr variety of Tomato is-
(1) High yielding hybrid variety
(2) High yielding new variety
(3) Transgenic
(4) Polyploid
Q.124 Genetically engineered microorganism used
successfully in bioremediation is-
(1) Trichoderma (2) Xanthomonas
(3) Bacillus (4) Pseudomonas
Q.125 Which of the following method is most commonly
used for creation of genetic variation in plants-
(1) Polyploidy (2) Hybridisation
(3) Mutation (4) Gentic engineering
Q.118 LVªsIVksekbflu fuEu esa ls rS;kj fd;s tkrs gSa -
(1) LVªsIVksekbfll ,UVhck;ksfVdl
(2) LVªsIVksekbfll uksM~;wll
(3) LVsªIVksekbfll xzkbfll
(4) LVsªIVksekbfll jkbeksll
Q.119 fuEUk esa ls dkSUklk ,d ,YdksgkWy mRiknu eas mi;ksx
gksrk gS?
(1) lsdsjksekbflt ljfofll
(2) Vks:yksfIll ;wVhfyl
(3) DyksLVªhfM;e cksVqfyue
(4) Y;wdksukWLVksd flVªkWoksje
Q.120 dkSUklk lewg ;ksxgVZ ds fuekZ.k rFkk xa/k ds fy,
mÙkjnk;h gS -
(1) cslhyl esxk FkeZl rFkk tUFkkseksukl Lih'kht
(2) cslhyl lcVsfyl rFkk bZ-dksykbZ
(3) jkbtksfc;e ehyksVh rFkk ,tksVkscsDVj
(4) ysDVkscsflyl dslh rFkk LVªsIVksdkWdl FkeksZfQyl
Q.121 vkuqokaf'kdh ;kaf=kdh thok.kq dk fdlds mRiknu esa
O;olkf;d mi;ksx gks jgk gS -
(1) feysVksfuu (2) VsLVksLVhjkWu
(3) ekuo bUlqfyu (4) FkkbZjkWDlhu
Q.122 Bt dikl mRiUu gksrh gS -
(1) Bt thu dh buflVw ladj.k ls
(2) Bt thu dh ukWnZu CykWfVax ls
(3) Bt thu dh Dyksfuax ls
(4) Bt thu dh lkmFkuZ CykWfVax ls
Q.123 VekVj dh ysoj lsoj fdLe gS-
(1) mPp mRiknd ladfjr fdLe ls
(2) mPp mRiknd uohu fdLe ls
(3) Vªakltsfud
(4) cgqxqf.krk
Q.124 vkuqokaf'kdh vfHk;kaf=kdh lQyrkiwoZd lw{ethoksa dk
mi;ksx ck;ksjsehMs'ku ds :Ik esa fd;k tkrk gS-
(1) VªkbZdksMekZ (2) tSUFkkseksukl
(3) csflyl (4) L;wMkseksukl
Q.125 ikniksa esa vkuqokaf'kd fofHkUurk mRiUu djus dh lcls
lkekU; fof/k gS -
(1) cgqxqf.krk (2) ladj.k
(3) mRifjorZu (4) vkuqokaf'kd vfHk;kaf=kdh
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Q.126 Embryo culture is mostly used for -
(1) Establishing suspension culture
(2) Rescue of interspecific hybrids
(3) Somatic hybridisation
(4) Haploid plant production
Q.127 Modern farmer's can increase the yield of paddy
upto 50% by the use of -
(1) Cyanobacteria
(2) Rhizobium
(3) Cyanobacteria in Azolla pinnata
(4) Farm yard manure
Q.128 Improved wheat variety rich in protein developed
with help of which donar variety -
(1) Atlas-66 (2) Aruna
(3) Pusa lerma (4) Pusa Gaurav
Q.129 Most rapid method for transgenic plant production is-
(1) Hybridisation (2) Mutation
(3) Polyploidy (4) Tissue culture
Q.130 In wheat plant 4n = 28 and in rye 2n = 14, in the
fertile hybrid Triticale plant, developed by
hybridization, the chromosome number will be-
(1) 21 (2) 42 (3) 63 (4) 84
Q.131 Production of maximum number of pollen grain is
character of-
(1) Entomophilous flowers
(2) Anemophilous flowers
(3) Hydrophilous flowers
(4) Zoophilus flowers
Q.132 Suspensor is the part of-
(1) Mature embryo
(2) Endosperm
(3) Developing embryo
(4) Embryosac
Q.133 In diplospory, direct development of embryosac
takes place from-
(1) Egg cell
(2) Diploid megaspore mother cell
(3) Diploid nucellus
(4) Diploid synergids
Q.126 Hkwz.k lao/kZu dk vf/kdrj mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gS -
(1) fuyEcu lao/kZu dks LFkkfir ds fy,
(2) varjtkrh; ladj ls cpus ds fy,
(3) dkf;d ladj.k ds fy,
(4) vxqf.kr ikniksa ds mRiknu ds fy,
Q.127 vkt ds d`"kd /kku dh Qly dh 50% rd o`f)
fdlds mi;ksx }kjk dj ldrs gSa-
(1) lk;ukscSfDVjh;k
(2) jkbtksfc;e
(3) Azolla pinnata esa lk;ukscSfDVjh;k
(4) QkeZ ;kMz [kkn
Q.128 izksfVu izpqjrk gsrq fodflr xsgaq dh mUur fdLe
fdl nkrk fdLe ls rS;kj dh xbZ gS
(1) ,Vyl&66 (2) v:.kk
(3) iwlk yekZ (4) iwlk xkSjo
Q.129 ijkthoh ikni mRiknu dh lcls rhoz fof/k gS -
(1) ladj.k (2) mRifjorZu
(3) cgqxqf.krk (4) Ård laoZ/ku
Q.130 xsagw esa 4n = 28 gS o jkbZ esa 2n = 14 gS rks buds
ladj.k esa mRiUu tuu{ke VªhVhdsy ikni esa xq.klw=kksa
dh la[;k gksxh -
(1) 21 (2) 42 (3) 63 (4) 84
Q.131 lcls vf/kd la[;k esa ijkxd.kksa dk mRiknu y{k.k
gS-
(1) dhVijkfxr iq"iksa dk
(2) ok;qijkfxr iq"iksa dk
(3) ty ijkfxr iq"iksa dk
(4) tUrq ijkfxr iq"iksa dk
Q.132 fuyEcd Hkkx gS -
(1) ifjiDo Hkw.k dk
(2) Hkzw.kiks"k dk
(3) fodkl'khy Hkwz.k dk
(4) Hkwz.kdks"k dk
Q.133 f}xq.kuchtk.kqdrk eas Hkwz.kdks"k dk lh/kk fuekZ.k
fdlls gksrk gS-
(1) v.M dksf'kdk
(2) f}xqf.kr xq:chtk.kqekr`dksf'kdk ls
(3) f}xqf.kr chtk.Mdk; ls
(4) f}xqf.kr lgk;d dksf'kdkvksa ls
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Q.134 In water logged condition production of which
growth regulator occurs in plants-
(1) Auxin (2) Gibberellin
(3) Cytokinin (4) Ethylene
Q.135 The flower which expose their mature anther and
stigma to the pollinating agent is called-
(1) Cleistogamy (2) Autogamy
(3) Dicogamy (4) Chasmogamy
Q.136 Which type of act has been formed for restriction
and prohibition on hunting of animals and
protection of specified plants-
(1) National forest policy (1988)
(2) Forest act (1927)
(3) Wild life (Protection) Act (1972)
(4) The Environment (Protection) Act (1986) NEPH
Q.137 The organisms have minimum and maximum
range of tolerance to environmental factors, range
of tolerance of a species is known as its-
(1) Ecological amplitude
(2) Homeostasis
(3) Ecological adaptation
(4) Ecological niche
Q.138 Steller's sea cow and passenger pigeon were
extinct due to-
(1) Habitat loss by human
(2) Over exploitation by human
(3) Introduction of alien species
(4) Co-extinction
Q.139 In which ovule, body of ovule lies at 90º on
funiculus-
(1) Anatropous (2) Amphitropous
(3) Campylotropous (4) Hemitropous
Q.140 In ecosystem services includes-
(a) Provide wild life habitat
(b) Maintain biodiversity
(c) Generate fertile soil
(d) Pollinate crops
(e) Provide storage site for carbon
(1) Only a, c and e
(2) Only a and c
(3) Only b, d and e
(4) a, b, c, d and e
Q.134 tykØkar voLFkk esa ikniksa esa fdl o`f) fu;ked dk
mRIkknu gksrk gS-
(1) vkWfDlu (2) ftczsyhu
(3) lkbVksdkbfuu (4) bFkkbZyhu
Q.135 iq"Ik dk mlds ifjiDo ijkxdks"k rFkk ofrZdkxz dks
ijkx.kdrkZvksa ds fy, vuko`r djuk dgykrk gS-
(1) vuquehY;rk (2) vkWVksxseh
(3) Mkbdksxseh (4) psLeksxseh
Q.136 fo'ks"k ikniksa ds laj{k.k rFkk tarqvksa ds f'kdkj ij
izfrcU/k yxkus ds fy, dkSulk vf/kfu;e cuk;k x;k
gS -
(1) jk"Vªh; ou uhfr (1988)
(2) ou vf/kfu;e (1927)
(3) oU; tho lqj{kk vf/kfu;e (1972)
(4) Ik;kZoj.k lqj{kk vf/kfu;e (1986) NEPH
Q.137 Ik;kZoj.k dkjdksas ds fy, izR;sd tho esa ,d mPpre
rFkk fuEure lgu'khyrk lhek gksrh gSA ;g
lgu'khyrk lhek ml iztkfr ds fy, D;k dgykrh gS
(1) ikfjfLFkfrdh vk;ke
(2) leLFkSfrdh
(3) Ik;kZoj.kh; vuqdwyu
(4) ikfjfLFkfrdh fudsr
Q.138 LVSyj leqnzh xk; rFkk okgd dcwrj yqIr gks x;s gSa -
(1) ekuo }kjk vkokl âkl ds dkj.k
(2) ekuo }kjk vR;f/kd nksgu ds dkj.k
(3) fons'kt tkfr;ksa ds dkj.k
(4) lgfoyqIru ds dkj.k
Q.139 fdl chtk.M esa chtk.M dk 'kjhj chtk.MoÙr ij
90º ds dks.k ij fLFkr gksrk gS-
(1) izrhi (2) ,EQhVªksil
(3) oØ (4) v/kZizrhi
Q.140 ikfjfLFkfrdh ra=k lsok esa lfEefyr gS -
(a) oU;tho vkokl miyC/k djkuk
(b) mitkÅ e`nk mRiUu djkuk
(c) tSofofo/krk cuk;s j[kuk
(d) Qlyksa dk ijkx.k
(e) dkcZu laxzg.k ds fy, LFkku miyC/k djkuk
(1) dsoy a, c rFkk e
(2) dsoy a rFkk c
(3) dsoy b, d rFkk e
(4) a, b, c, d rFkk e
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Q.141 Organism occupy a specific place in food chain
based on the source of their nutrition or food or
their feeding relationship with other organism,is
called-
(1) Ecological pyramid (2) Ecology niche
(3) Trophic level (4) Habitat
Q.142 In submerged hydrophytes the functional stomata are
found-
(1) On the upper leaf surface
(2) On the lower leaf surface
(3) Both leaf surface
(4) No where on the plant
Q.143 Organism which can regulates their internal body
temperature by heat production inside body are
called -
(1) Poikilotherms (2) Ectotherms
(3) Endotherm (4) Hekistotherms
Q.144 Montreal protocol was effective in-
(1) 1987 (2) 1992 (3) 1989 (4) 1986
Q.145 Contribution of methane in total global warming is-
(1) 10% (2) 80% (3) 50% (4) 20%
Q.146 The condition of maturation of anther and stigma
of same flower simultaneously is called-
(1) Geitonogamy (2) Xenogamy
(3) Allogamy (4) Homogamy
Q.147 The lake with high BOD is called as-
(1) Eutrophic (2) Marsh
(3) Swamp (4) Wetland
Q.148 In most of Angiosperms, which megaspore of
spores tetrad is function -
(1) Micropylar (2) Chalazal
(3) Antipodal (4) Nucellar
Q.149 The major and important difference between
carbon and phosphorus cycle are firstly-
(1) Atmospheric input of phosphorus through
rainfall are much smaller than carbon inputs
(2) Exchanges of phosphorus between organism
and environment are negligible
(3) Reservior of carbon cycle exist in the
atmosphere and reservoir of phosphorus is
located in earth crust.
(4) All of the above
Q.141 iks"k.k ;k Hkkstu ;k vU; thoksa ds lkFk [kk| lEcU/kksa
ds vk/kkj ij izR;sd tho dk [kk| Ja`[kyk esa fof'k"V
LFkku gksrk gS] ftls dgrs gSa -
(1) ikfjfLFkfrdh Lrwi (2) ikfjfLFkfrdh fudsr
(3) iks"kd Lrj (4) vkokl
Q.142 tyfueXu tyksn~fHkn esa dk;Z'khy ja/kz Ikk;s tkrs
gSa-
(1) i.kZ dh Åijh lrg ij
(2) i.kZ dh fupyh lrg ij
(3) i.kZ dh nksuksa lrgksa ij
(4) ikni ij dgha ugha
Q.143 tUrq tks vius vkarfjd 'kjhfjd rkieku dk fu;eu
'kjhj dh vkarfjd Å"ek dk mRiknu djds dj ysrs
gS] og dgykrs gS -
(1) Poikilotherms (2) Ectotherms
(3) Endotherm (4) Hekistotherms
Q.144 eksusfVª;y izksVksdkWy dc izHkko esa vk;k -
(1) 1987 (2) 1992 (3) 1989 (4) 1986
Q.145 oSf'od m"ek;u essa ehFksu dk ;ksxnku fdruk gS-
(1) 10% (2) 80% (3) 50% (4) 20%
Q.146 ,d iq"Ik ds ijkxdks"k rFkk ofrdkxz dk lkFk&lkFk
ifjiDo gksus okyh fLFkfr dks dgrs gSa -
(1) thVksuksxseh (2) thuksxseh
(3) ,yksxseh (4) gkseksxseh
Q.147 ,slh >hy ftlesa cgqr vf/kd ek=kk esa Iykoh ikni gks
dgykrh gS-
(1) lqiksf"kr (2) ek'kZ
(3) LosEi (4) ueHkweh
Q.148 vf/kdka'k vkorZchft;ksa esa xq:chtk.kq prq"d dk
dkSulk xq:chtk.kq fØ;k'khy gksrk gS -
(1) chtk.M}kjh; (2) fuHkkxh;
(3) izfreq[kh (4) chtk.Mdk;h
Q.149 dkcZu rFkk QkLQksjl pØ dk eq[; rFkk egRoiw.kZ
varj izkFkfed :Ik ls gksxk-
(1) okrkoj.k esa o"kkZ ty }kjk QkLQksjl dk vkxe]
dkcZu vkxe dh vis{kk de gksrk gSA
(2) thoksa rFkk okrkoj.k ds e/; QkWLQksjl dk
fofue; ux.; gksrk gSA
(3) dkcZu pØ L=kksr okrkoj.k esa rFkk QkLQksjl dk
L=kksr i`Foh iiZVh esa gksrk gSA
(4) mijksDr lHkh
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Q.150 Nucellus is located in
(1) Anther (2) Ovule
(3) Embryosac (4) Ovary
Q.151 The ozone hole over Antarctica develops each year
between-
(1) July and mid August
(2) Late August and early October
(3) January and mid March
(4) Late April and early July
Q.152 For reducing emission of poisonous gases from
automobiles, catalytic converters having metals are-
(1) Nickel, Silver and Silicon
(2) Platinum, Palladium & Rhodium
(3) Lead, Zinc & Nickel
(4) Copper, Silicon & Lead
Q.153 Formation of embryosac in Angiosperm is called-
(1) Microsporogenesis
(2) Microgametonenesis
(3) Megasporogenesis
(4) Megagametogenesis
Q.154 Formation of embryo from nucellus without
fertilization is called-
(1) Apogamy (2) Apospory
(3) Diplospory (4) Adventive embryony
Q.155 Role of nitrifying bacteria in nitrogen cycle is to-
(1) Convert amino acids into ammonia
(2) Convert ammonia into nitrates
(3) Fix atmospheric nitrogen
(4) Convert ammonia into nitrogen
Q.156 When migration of a section of population to
another place and if such gene frequencies change
occurs by chance, it is termed as -
(1) Mutation (2) Natural selection
(3) Genetic drift (4) Gene flow
Q.157 First human like being probably did not eat meat
with brain capacity between 650 – 800 cc
(1) Homo erectus
(2) Homo heidelbergensis
(3) Homo neanderthalensis
(4) Homo habilis
Q.150 fctk.Mdk; fLFkr gksrk gS-
(1) ijkxdks"k (2) chtk.M esa
(3) Hkwz.kdks'k (4) v.Mk'k; esa
Q.151 fuEu esa ls fdu ds e/; vaVkdZfVdk esa vkstksu fNnz
fodflr gksrk gS-
(1) twykbZ rFkk e/; vxLr
(2) vxLr ds var esa rFkk vDVwcj ds izkjEHk esa
(3) tuojh rFkk e/; ekpZ
(4) vizsy ds var esa rFkk tqykbZ ds izkjEHk esa
Q.152 Lopfyr okguksa ls fo"kSyh xSlkas ds mRltZu dks ?kVkus
ds fy, mRizsjdh; ifjorZd /kkrq gS -
(1) fudy] pkanh rFkk flfydkWu
(2) IysfVue] isysfM;e rFkk jgksfM;e
(3) ysM ¼lhlk½] ftad rFkk fudy
(4) rkack ¼dkWij½] flfydkWu rFkk lhlk
Q.153 vkorZchth;ksa esa Hkwz.kdks"k dk fuekZ.k dgykrk gS -
(1) y?kqchtk.kqd tuu
(2) xq:chtk.kqd tuu
(3) y?kq;qXed tuu
(4) xq:;qXed tuu
Q.154 chtk.Mdk; ls fcuk fu"kspu ds Hkzq.k dk fuekZ.k gksuk
dgykrk gS -
(1) vi;qXedrk (2) vichtk.kqdrk
(3) f}chtk.kqdrk (4) viLFkkfud Hkzq.krk
Q.155 ukbVªkstu pØ esa ukbVªhdkjh thok.kq dh Hkwfedk gksrk gS-
(1) vehuksa vEyksa dk veksfu;k esa ifjorZu djus esa
(2) veksfu;k dks ukbVªsV esa ifjofrZr djus esa
(3) okrkoj.kh; ukbVªkstu dks fLFkj djus esa
(4) veksfu;k dks ukbVªkstu esa ifjofrZr djus esa
Q.156 tc lef"V dk ,d Hkkx ,d LFkku ls vU; LFkku dh
vksj izokl djs] ,oa ;fn ,slh thu vko`fÙk eas vdLekr
ifjorZu gksus yxs rks bls dgsxsaA
(1) mRifjorZu (2) izkd`frd oj.k
(3) vuqokaf'kd fopyu (4) thu izokg
Q.157 izFke euq"; leku tho tks lEHkor% ek¡l ugha [kkrk Fkk]
ftldh efLr"d {kerk 650 – 800 ds e/; Fkh
(1) gkseks bjsDVl
(2) gkseks gsMsyctZsfUll
(3) gkseks fu,UMjFkysfUll
(4) gkseks gsfcfyl
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Q.158 Mammals have evolved from -
(1) Sauropsids (2) Pelycosaurs
(3) Therapsids (4) Sphenodons
Q.159 Rhynia types plants are considered as direct
ancestors of -
(1) Tracheophyte (2) Chlorophyte
(3) Psilophyton (4) Bryophytes
Q.160 Variations are small, directional, heritable, will
enable only fittest to reproduce and leave more
progeny. This concept was propounded in -
(1) Lamarckism
(2) Darwinism
(3) Mutation theory
(4) Both 2 & 3
Q.161 What is not true w.r.t biological evolutionary
concept -
(1) Adaptive ability is inherited
(2) Adaptation has genetic basis
(3) Fitness is the end result of the ability
(4) Nature does not select for fitness based on
characteristics which are inherited.
Q.162 Excess use of herbicides or pesticides has resulted
in selection of resistant varieties in a much lesses
timescale. This is a result of -
(1) Natural selection
(2) Genetic drift
(3) Mutation
(4) Anthropogenic process
Q.163 Homology is based on divergent evolution and
indicates common ancestry which of the following
are not true w.r.t. homology -
(1) Biochemical similarities
(2) Vertebrate hearts
(3) Fore limbs of birds & mammals
(4) Sweet potato and potato
Q.164 First non-cellular forms of life could have
originated -
(1) 500 million years after formation of earth
(2) 3 billion years after formation of earth
(3) 1.5 billion years after formation of earth
(4) 2.5 billion years after formation of earth
Q.158 Lru/kkjh mRiUUk gq;s Fks-
(1) lksjksfIlM (2) ihykbdkslksjl
(3) FkSjsfIlM (4) fLQsuksMksu
Q.159 jkbfu;k ds leku ikni fdldk izR;{k iwoZt ekuk
tkrk gS -
(1) Vsªfd;ksQkbV (2) DyksjksQkbV
(3) lkbyksQkbVksu (4) czk;ksQkbV
Q.160 fofHkuurk,¡ NksVh] fn'kkRed] vkuqokaf'kd gksrh gSa tks
fd dsoy ;ksX;re tuu ds fy, l{ke gksrh gS rFkk
vf/kd larfr;ksa dks mRiUu djrh gSA ;g vo/kkj.kk
izLrqr dh xbZ Fkh -
(1) ysekdZokn esa
(2) MkfoZuokn esa
(3) mRifjorZu fl)kUr esa
(4) 2 o 3 nksuksa esa
Q.161 tSfod mn~fodkl dh vo/kkj.k ds fo"k; esa lR;
ugha gS -
(1) vuqdwyu l{kerk oa'kkxr gksrh gS
(2) vuqdwyu dk vk/kkj vkuqokaf'kdh gS
(3) l{kerk dk vafre ifj.kke ;ksX;rk gS
(4) izd`fr }kjk mu y{k.kksa dk p;u ugha fd;k tkrk
tks ;ksX;rk ij vk/kkfjr gks rFkk oa'kkxr~ gks
Q.162 'kkduk'kh ;k ihM+duk'kh ds vR;f/kd mi;ksx ls
izfrjks/kh fdLeksa ds p;u esa de le; fy;k tkrk gSA
;g ifj.kke gS -
(1) izkd`frd oj.k dk
(2) vkuqokaf'kd fopyu
(3) mRifjorZu
(4) ekuoh; fØ;k,sa (,aFkzksikstsfud izfØ;k)
Q.163 letkrrk vilkjh mn~fodkl ij vk/kkfjr gksrh gS
rFkk lkekU; iwoZtrk n'kkZrh gSA fuEukafdr esa dkSulk
,d letkrrk ds lUnHkZ esa lR; ugh gS -
(1) tSojklk;fud lekurk,sa
(2) d'ks:d ân; esa
(3) if{k;ksa ds vxz ikn rFkk Lrfu;ksa
(4) 'kDdjdna rFkk vkyw
Q.164 thou dh izFke vdksf'kdh; voLFkk mRiUu gqbZ Fkh -
(1) i`Foh ds fuekZ.k ds 500 fefy;u o"kZ i'pkr~
(2) i`Foh ds fuekZ.k ds 3 fcfy;u o"kZ i'pkr~
(3) i`Foh ds fuekZ.k ds 1.5 fcfy;u o"kZ i'pkr~
(4) i`Foh ds fuekZ.k ds 2.5 fcfy;u o"kZ i'pkr~
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 Page # 25

Q.165 If adenine is replaced by Guanine such change
(mutation) is termed as
(1) Frameshift (2) Transition
(3) Translocation (4) Deletion
Q.166 The molecule given below is
HO
H
CH2OH
O
H
OH H
OH
H OH
(1) Glucose (2) Fructose
(3) Sucrose (4) Galactose
Q.167 In and experiment, DNA was found to have 31%
adenine and 19% guanine. The quantity of cytosine
shall be -
(1) 38 % (2) 31 % (3) 19 % (4) 62 %
Q.168 Which is not consistent with double helical
structure of DNA ?
(1) A = T, C = G
(2) Density of DNA decreases on heating
(3) A + T / C + G is not constant
(4) Both (1 ) and (2)
Q.169 Cellulose is made of -
(1) Unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked
by α-1, 6 glycosidic bonds.
(2) Unbranched chain of glucose molecules linked
by β-1, 4 glycosidic bonds.
(3) Branched chain of glucose molecules linked
by α-1, 6 glycosidic bonds at the site of
branching.
(4) Branched chain of glucose molecules with
α-1, 6 glycosidic bond in the straight chain
and β-1, 4 linked bonds at the site of
branching.
Q.170 Which two groups of the following formula are
involved in peptide linkage between different
amino acids
2
H
1
H2N C
4
R
3
COOH
(1) 2 and 3 (2) 1 and 4
(3) 1 and 3 (4) 2 and 4
H
Q.165 ;fn ,fMfuu dks Xokfuu ls izfrLFkkfir fd;k tk;s rks
,slk ifjorZu (mRifjorZu) dgykrk gS
(1) Ýsef'kV (2) laØe.k
(3) LFkkukUrj.k (4) foyksiu
Q.166 uhps fn;k x;k v.kq gS
H OH
(1) Xywdkst (2) ÝDVkst
(3) lqØkst (4) xsysDVkst
Q.167 ,d iz;ksx esa, DNA esa 31% ,Msfuu o 19% Xkqvkfuu
ik;k tkrk gSA lkbVksflu dh ek=kk D;k gksxh -
(1) 38 % (2) 31 % (3) 19 % (4) 62 %
CAREER POINT, CP Tower, Road No.1, IPIA, Kota (Raj.), Ph: 0744-3040000 Page # 26
HO
H
CH2OH
O
H
OH H
OH
Q.168 dkSulh DNA dh f}dq.Myhr lajpuk vifjorZu'khy
ugha gksrh gS ?
(1) A = T, C = G
(2) Å"ek ij DNA dh dk ?kuRo ?kVrk gS
(3) A + T / C + G LFkk;h ugha gS
(4) nksukas (1 ) o (2)
Q.169 lsY;qykst cuk gksrk gS -
(1) α-1, 6 XykbdksflfMd cU/k ls layXu Xywdkst
v.kqvksa dh v'kkf[kr Jà[kyk ls
(2) β-1, 4 XykbdksflfMd cU/k ls layXu Xywdkst v.kq
dh v'kkf[kr Jà[kyk ls
(3) 'kkf[kr LFky ij α-1, 6 XykbdksflfMd cU/k ls
layXu Xyqdkst v.kq dh 'kkf[kr Jà[kyk ls
(4) lh/kh Jà[kyk esa α-1, 6 XykbdksflfMd cU/k ds
lkFk Xyqdkst v.kq dh 'kkf[kr Jà[kyk ,oa 'kk[ku
LFky ij β-1, 4 lyXu cU/k ls
Q.170 fuEu lw=k ds dkSuls nks lewg fofHkUu vEyksa ds e/;
isIVkbM lgyXurk esa Hkkx ysrs gS
1
H2N
H
C
4
R
3
COOH
(1) 2 rFkk 3 (2) 1 rFkk 4
(3) 1 rFkk 3 (4) 2 rFkk 4
2
H

Q.171 Match column-I and column-II and choose the
correct set
Column I Column II
(Transgenic) (Application)
A. Golden rice 1. Pest resistance
B. Flaver savr 2.
and high yield
Vitamin A ric
C. Bt cotton 3. Increased
life
shelf
D. Cattles 4. Therapeutic
human proteins
A B C D
(1) 1 2 3 4
(2) 3 2 4 1
(3) 2 3 1 4
(4) 4 3 2 1
Q.172 Here are the recognition sites of restriction
enzyme
↓
(1) Bam HI G C A T C G
C C T A G G
↓
(2) Eco RI G A A T T C
C T T A A G
↓
(3) Sca I A G T A C T
T C A T G A
↓
(4) Sma I C C C G G G
G G G C C C
Q.173 In DNA finger printing -
(1) Multiple restriction enzyme digests or
generate unique fragments
(2) The polymerase chain reaction amplifies fewer
DNA
(3) The variability of repeated sequences between
two restriction sites is evaluated
(4) All of these
↑
↑
↑
↑
Q.171 LrEHk-I dks LrEHk-II ds lkFk lqesfyr dhft,
LrEHk I LrEHk II
(ijkthuh) (vuqiz;ksx)
A. Lo.kZ pkoy 1. IkhMd izfrjks/kh o
vf/kd mRiknu
B. ysoj lsoj 2. foVkfeu A izpwj
C. Bt dikl 3. laxzg dky dk
c

Q.174 Which is most commonly used contraceptive
method -
(1) Harmonal method (2) Barrier method
(3) Natural method (4) M.T.P
Q.175 The sequence of events in bacterial multiplication
is -
(1) Stationary, lag, log, decline
(2) Stationary, log, lag, decline
(3) Lag, log, stationary, decline
(4) Decline, log, lag, stationary
Q.176 Information about birth rate, death rate, sex ratio,
age distribution etc. of a population is obtained
from -
(1) Mortality rate
(2) Life table
(3) Natality table
(4) Both (1) and (2)
Q.177 In human beings, embryo implantation is carried
out -
(1) After 16-called staged
(2) After 32-called stage
(3) After 64-called stage
(4) Immediately after fertilization.
Q.178 Lack of 'sleep, loss of appetite, hallucination are
symptoms due to intake of …….
(1) Morphine (2) Pethidine
(3) Cocaine (4) Heroin
Q.179 GIFT is -
(1) Embryo implantation in vivo fertilization
(2) Egg implantation for in vivo fertilization
(3) Embryo implantation after in vitro fertilization
(4) Egg implantation after in vitro fertilization
Q.180 The carcinogenic ingredient of tobacco smoke is -
(1) Nicotine
(2) Tar
(3) Carbon monoxide
(4) N-nitrosomethylene / Polycyclic aromatic
hydrocarbons
Q.181 A weekly oral contraceptive is -
(1) Mala A (2) Mala D
(3) Saheli (4) None of these
Q.174 lcls vf/kd mi;ksx fd;k tkus okyk xHkZfujks/kd
mik; gS -
(1) gkeksZuy mik; (2) vojks/kd mik;
(3) izkd`frd mik; (4) M.T.P
Q.175 thok.kqxq.ku esa ?kVukvksa dk Øe gS -
(1) Stationary, lag, log, decline
(2) Stationary, log, lag, decline
(3) Lag, log, stationary, decline
(4) Decline, log, lag, stationary
Q.176 lef"V dk tUe nj] e`R;q nj] fyaxkuqikr] vk;q
forj.k vkfn ds ckjs esa lwpuk,sa izkIr gksrh gS
(1) e`R;q nj ls
(2) thou lkj.kh ls
(3) tUenj lkj.kh ls
(4) nksuksa (1) o (2)
Q.177 ekuo esa Hkzq.k izR;kjksi.k fd;k tkrk gS -
(1) 16-dksf'kdh; voLFkk ds Ik'pkr~
(2) 32-dksf'kdh; voLFkk ds Ik'pkr~
(3) 64-dksf'kdh; voLFkk ds Ik'pkr~
(4) fu"kspu ds rqjUr ckn
Q.178 ……….. ysus ds dkj.k uhan dh deh] Hkw[k dh deh o
Hkze mRiUUk gksrk gS
(1) ekQhZu (2) isFkhMhu
(3) dksdsu (4) gsjksbu
Q.179 GIFT gS -
(1) in vivo fu"kspu Hkwz.k dk izR;kjksi.k
(2) in vivo fu"kspu ds fy, v.Mks dk izR;kjksi.k
(3) in vitro fu"kspu ds Ik'pkr~ Hkwz.k dk izR;kjksi.k
(4) in vitro fu"kspu ds Ik'pkr~ v.Ms dk izR;kjksi.k
Q.180 rEckdq /kzqeiku dk dkflZukstfud ?kVd gS -
(1) fudksVhu
(2) Rkkj
(3) dkcZu eksuksDlkbM
(4) N-ukbVªkslksesFkkbyhu / ikWyh lkbfDyd ,sjksesVhd
gkbMªksdkcZUl
Q.181 lkIrkfgd xHkZfujks/kd gS -
(1) ekyk A (2) ekyk D
(3) lgsyh (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
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Q.182 Which year is called big divide ?
(1) 1924 (2) 1921 (3) 1942 (4) 1947
Q.183 Effects of nicotine of human body include -
(1) Release of adrenaline and hence increased
blood pressure and heart beat
(2) Stimulation of nerve impulse and muscle
relaxation
(3) Decreased foetal growth
(4) All the above
Q.184 Total number of autosomes in normal human
sperm is -
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 46 (4) 22
Q.185 Which of the following properties of acquired
immunity is the basis of vaccination ?
(1) Specificity
(2) Diversity
(3) Memory
(4) Descrimination between self and non-self
Q.186 Which of the following is not a component of
innate imunity ?
(1) Antibodies (2) Interferon
(3) Complement proteins (4) Phagocytes
Q.187 A person has developed interferon in his body. He
seems to carry infection of
(1) Tetanus (2) Malaria
(3) Measles (4) Typhoid
Q.188 Type of immunoglobulin present in colostrums is
(1) IgA (2) IgG (3) IgD (4) IgE
Q.189 The various bio-chemical substances such as urea,
cholesterol etc. in body fluids are estimated by -
(1) Autoanalyser (2) Sonography
(3) Dialyser (4) Oxygenators
Q.190 Metastasis is the process of -
(1) Excessive cell proliferation
(2) Transformation of benign tumour into a
malignant tumour
(3) Movement of cancerous cells from one site to
another sites in body
(4) Transformation of normal cell into tumourous
cells.
Q.182 dkSulk o"kZ nh?kZ foHkktu dgykrk gS ?
(1) 1924 (2) 1921 (3) 1942 (4) 1947
Q.183 ekuo 'kjhj ds fudksfVu dk izHkko esa -
(1) ,Mªhufyu eqDr gksrk gS o bl izdkj ân; LiUnu
o jDr nkc cM+rk gSA
(2) isf'k;ksa esa foJkekoLFkk o raf=kdh; mn~nhiu izsfjr
djrs gSA
(3) Hkzq.k dh o`f) ?kVrh gSA
(4) mijksDr lHkh
Q.184 lkekU; ekuo 'kqØk.kq esa letkr xq.klw=kksa dh la[;k
gksrh gS -
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 46 (4) 22
Q.185 fuEu esa ls dkSulh mikftZr izfrj{kk fo'ks"krk
Vhdkdj.k ij vk/kkfjr gS ?
(1) fof'k"V~rk
(2) fofo/krk
(3) Le`fr
(4) Lo;a o ijk;s ds e/; igpku
Q.186 fuEu esa ls dkSulh lgt izfrj{kk dk ?kVd ugha gS ?
(1) izfrj{kk (2) bUVjQsjkWu
(3) iwjd izksVhu (4) Hk{kdk.kquk'ku
Q.187 ,d O;fDr Lo;a ds 'kjhj esa bUVjQsjkWu mRiUu djrk
gSA ;g fdlls laØfer gS
(1) fVVusl (2) eysfj;k
(3) [kljk (4) VkbQkbM
Q.188 uonqX/k ¼dksyksLVªe½ esa mifLFkr izfrj{kh XyksC;wyhu dk
izdkj gksrk gS
Q.189
(1) IgA (2) IgG (3) IgD (4) IgE
'kjhj nzO; esa fofHkUu izdkj ds tSo jlk;u inkFkZ tSls
;wfj;k dkWysLVªksy vkfn dk vkdyu fd;k tkrk gS -
(1) vksVks,ukykbtj (2) lksuksxzkQh
(3) Mk;ykbtj (4) vkDlhftusVlZ
Q.190 esVkLVsfll fdldh izfØ;k gS -
(1) vR;f/kd dksf'kdh; vko/kZu
(2) csuhXu xkB dk esyhXusUV xkB esa :ikUrj.k
(3) 'kjhj esa dSUlj dksf'kdkvksa dh ,d LFky ls vU;
LFky ij xfr
(4) lkekU; dksf'kdkvks dk xkWBe; dksf'kdkvksa esa
L:ikUrj.k
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Q.191 In man somatic cells contains autosomes and -
(1) Both X and Y chromosomes
(2) Either X and Y chromosomes
(3) Only Y chromosome
(4) None of these
Q.192 Phenomenon where in the heterozygous state, a
phenotype, intermediate to the dominant and
recessive types is obtained is called
(1) Mixed dominance
(2) Complete dominance
(3) Major dominance
(4) Incomplete dominance
Q.193 A trait is passed from man to only of his sons it
(1) Gene for that trait is dominant
(2) Gene is located on Y chromosomes
(3) Both above
(4) Located on X-chromosome
Q.194 When both the alleles are expressed in hybrid and
produce different phenotype the phenomenon is
known as
(1) Dominance (2) Incomplete dominance
(3) Codominance (4) All of these
Q.195 If a dwarf variety of a pea plant was treated with
GBA, it grew as tall as the pure tall pea plant on
selfing the phenotypic ratio is likely to be
(1) All dwarf
(2) All tall
(3) 50 % tall
(4) 75 % tall : 25 % dwarf
Q.196 If the cell of an organism, heterozygous for two
pairs of genes represented by XxZz undergoes
meiosis, the possible genotypic combination of
gametes will be -
(1) XZ : xz : Xz : xZ (2) XZ : xz : Xz
(3) Xx : Zz : Xz (4) Data incomplete
Q.197 Hemolytic jaundice is caused by a dominant gene
but only 20% of the people actually develop it,
what proportion of the children would be expected
to develop the disease if a heterozygous man
marries a homozygous normal voman -
(1) 1/5 (2) 1/10
(3) 1/40 (4) 1/20
Q.191 ekuo esa dkf;d dksf'kdk esa vkWVkslksEl ¼dkf;d½
xq.klw=k rFkk fuEu j[krs gS
(1) nksuksa X vkSj Y xq.klw=k
(2) X ;k Y xq.klw=k
(3) dsoy Y xq.klw=k
(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha
Q.192 og ifj?kVuk ftlesa fo"ke;qXeth voLFkk esa y{k.kizk:I
izHkkoh ,oa vizHkkoh izdkj ds e/;LFk dk izkIr gksrk gS]
dgykrk gS
(1) fefJr izHkkfork
(2) iw.kZ izHkkfork
(3) nh?kZ izHkkfork
(4) viw.kZ izHkkfork
Q.193 ,d foi;kZlh y{k.k ekuo ls dsoy mlds iq=kksa esa
tkrk gS] ;fn
(1) ml foi;kZlh y{k.k ds thu izHkkoh
(2) thu Y xq.klw=k ij fLFkr gS
(3) mijksDr nksuksa
(4) X-xq.klw=k ij fLFkr gS
Q.194 tc ladj esa nksuksa ;qXe fodYih izdV gksrs gSa ,oa
fHkUu fQuksVkbi mRiUUk djrs gSa rks ;g ifj?kVuk
tkuh tkrh gSA
(1) izHkkfor (2) viw.kZ izHkkfork
(3) lgizHkkfork (4) mijksDr lHkh
Q.195 ;fn eVj ds ikni dh ckSuh fdLe dks GBA ls
mipkfjr fd;k tk, rks ;g 'kq) yEcs eVj ikni ds
leku o`f) djrk gSA Loijkx.k djokus ij y{k.k
izk:Ik vuqikr fuEu ds leku gksxk
(1) lHkh ckSus
(2) lHkh yEcs
(3) 50 % yEcs
(4) 75 % yEcs : 25 % ckSus
Q.196 ;fn ,d tho dh dksf'kdk XxZz }kjk iznf'kZr thUl
ds nks ;qXe ds fy, fo"ke;qXeth gSa] mlesa v)Zlw=kh
foHkktu gksrk gS rks ;qXedkas esa laHkkfor thuizk:I
la;kstu gksaxs
(1) XZ : xz : Xz : xZ (2) XZ : xz : Xz
(3) Xx : Zz : Xz (4) vkadM+s viw.kZ
Q.197 gheksykbfVd ihfy;k ,d izHkkoh thu ds dkj.k gksrk
gS ijUrq dsoy 20% O;fDr dh okLro esa bls fodflr
dj ikrs gS ;fn fo"ke ;qXeth iq:"k] ,d le;qXeth
efgyk ls fookg djrk gS rks fdl vuqikr esa cPpksa esa
;g jksx gksus dh laHkkouk gS
(1) 1/5 (2) 1/10
(3) 1/40 (4) 1/20
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Q.198 Christmas disease is due to deficiency of factor -
(1) Factor XI (2) Factor IX
(3) Factor X (4) Factor VIII
Q.199 C1 of pentose suger attach with the …… of
pyrimidine base.
(1) N1 (2) N3
(3) N9 (4) N5
Q.200 Which vaccine is used for Tuberculosis
prophylaxis
(1) D.P.T (2) B.C.G.
(3) T.A.B. (4) O.P.V.
Q.198 fØle; jksx fuEu dkjd dh deh ds dkj.k gksrk gS
(1) dkjd XI (2) dkjd IX
(3) dkjd X (4) dkjd VIII
Q.199 isUVkst 'kdZjk dk C1 ikbjhfeMhu {kkj ds …… ls
tqM+rk gS
(1) N1 (2) N3
(3) N9 (4) N5
Q.200 V~;wcjD;wwyksfll izksQkbysfDll ls cpko ds fy,
dkSulk fVdk mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gS
(1) D.P.T (2) B.C.G.
(3) T.A.B. (4) O.P.V.
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