MPPMT Paper - 2011 - Brain Masters Classes

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SECTION-A
(PHYSICS)
24/07/2011
1. An infinite number of charges each equal to ‘q’ are placed along the x- axis at x = 1.x = 2, x = 4, x =
8............ and so on. Find the potential at the point x = 0 due to this set of charges.
(A) kq (B) 2kq (C) 4kq (D) ∞
2. One Amp current flowing for 25 min through a silver voltameter deposits 1.5 g of silver. The BCE of
silver is :
(A) 0.001 g/c (B) 0.01 g/c (C) 0.1 g/c (D) 0.06 g/c
3. What is immaterial for an electric fuse?
(A) It’s specific resistance (B) It’s radius
(C) It’s length (D) Current flowing through it
4. One Henry inductance, 25 μ F capacitance and one Ω resistance are connected in series. The value
of Quality Factor would be:
(A) 50 (B) 100 (C) 200 (D) 400
5. A compass needle whose magnetic moment is 60 amp m 2 is pointing towards geographical north
experiences a torque of 1.2 × 10 –3 newton-metre. If at that place the horizontal component of earth’s
magnetic field is 40 microweber-m 2 . Then the angle of declination at that place would be :
(A) 30º (B) 60º (C) 90º (D) 180º
6. A lens has power +5 dioptres in air. What will be its power if completely immersed in water, Given
3 4
refractive index of glass is ; refractive index of water is .
2
3
(A) 5 dioptres (B) 2.5 dioptres (C) 1.25 dioptres (D) 1 dioptres
7. A person suffering from myopia can clearly see objects placed at a distance of 1.5 m. Then the power
of the lens used is:
(A) 0.5 dioptres (B) 0.67 dioptres (C) 1 dioptres (D) 1.5 dioptres
8. Which of the following has the maximum resistance ?
(A) Voltmeter (B) Millivoltmeter (C) Ammeter (D) Milliammeter
9. A transformer converts 220 V into 11 volt. If the current in the primary coil is 5 amperes and that in
the secondary coil is 90 amperes. Then the efficiency of the transformer is :
(A) 90% (B) 100% (C) 21% (D) 150%
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10. One kilowatt hour is equal to:
(A) 3.6 × 10 6 joules (B) 3.6 × 10 4 joules (C) 10 3 joules (D) 6 × 10 4 joules
11. Which of the following pairs have identical dimensions:
(A) Pressure and surface tension
(B) Work and kinetic energy
(C) Moment of force and angular momentum
(D) Momentum and force
12. During an accelerated motion of a particle:
(A) A verage velocity of the particle is always less than it’s final velocity
(B) A verage velocity of the particle is always greater than its final velocity
(C) A vergae velocity of the particle may be zero also
(D) A vergae velocity of the particle is half its final velocity
13. A Mass M is moving with a constant velocity parallel to the x-axis. It’s angular momentum with
respect to the origin:
(A) Is zero (B) Remains constant
(C) Goes on increasing (D) Goes on decreasing
14. A ball of steel of radius 4 cm moving with a speed of 81 cm/s hits another ball of steel of radius 2
cm. at rest. If the collision is elastic, the speed of the smaller ball after the collision will be:
(A) 63 cm/s. (B) 144 cm/s. (C) 120 cm./s. (D) 85 cm/s.
15. The ring, the sphere and the cylinder have the same mass and diameter. The axis of rotation is
perpendicular through center of gravity. Which one has the maximum moment of inertia?
(A) Ring (B) Sphere (C) Cylinder (D) All have equal
16. A particle on earth’s surface is given a velocity equal to its escape velocity. It’s total mechanical
energy will be:
(A) Negative (B) Positive (C) Zero (D) Infinite
17. If the change in the value of ‘g’ at a height ‘h’ above the surface of the earth is the same as at a
depth ‘x’ below it. When both x and h are much samller than the radius of the earth. Then:
(A) x = h (B) x = 2h (C) x = h/2 (D) x = h 2
18. The relation between Y; K & η is:
(A)
3
=
Y
3 1
+
K η
(B)
1 1 1
= +
Y 9K
3η
(C)
9 3 1
= + (D)
Y η K
1
=
η
1 1
+
K Y
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19. A capillary is dipped in water vessel kept on a freely falling lift, then:
(A) Water will not rise in the tube
(B) Water will rise to the maximum available height of the tube
(C) Water will rise to the height observed under normal condition
(D) Water will rise to the height below that observed under normal condition
20. For air, the ratio of specific heats Cp/Cv = γ is:
(A) 1.00 (B) 1.41 (C) 1.67 (D) 2.0
21. For an ideal gas in an adiabatic process, the relation between temperature T and pressure P is:
(A)
(C)
P T
γ γ − 1
γ 1−
γ
= constant (B)
1 − γ γ
γ − γ
P T = constant (D) T
P T = constant
P 1 = constant
22. Acceleration – displacement graph of a particle executing SHM is as shown in figure. The time
period of its oscillation (in sec.) is:
π
(A) 2
(B)
2π
(C) π
π
(D) 4
23. Let T1 and T2 be the time periods of two spring A and B when a mass m is suspended from them
separately. Now both the springs are connected in parallel and same is suspended with them. Now let
T be the time period in this position. Then:
(A) T = T1 + T2
(B)
T
T T
1 1
= (D)
1 2 = (C) +
2 2 2
T1
+ T2
T T1
T2
24. Which one of the following is not the standard from of a sine wave?
⎛ t x ⎞
(A) y = A sin 2 π ⎜ − ⎟ (B) y = A sin (vt – kx)
⎝ T λ ⎠
⎛ x ⎞
(C) y = A sin w ⎜ t – ⎟ (D) y = A sin k(vt – x)
⎝ v ⎠
1
2 2
T = T1
+
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T
2
2

25. When a source of sound approaches a stationary observer the intensity of the sound wave:
(A) Is increased
(B) Is decreased
(C) Remains constant
(D) May increase or decrease depending on the speed of source
26. In a given process of an ideal gas, dW = 0 and dQ < 0. Then for the gas:
(A) The temperature will decrease (B) The volume will increase
(C) The pressure will remain constant (D) The temperature will increase
27. The ratio of the speed of sound in nitrogen gas to that in helium gas, at 300K is:
(A) ( 2 / 7)
(B) ( 1/
7)
(C) ( 3)
/ 5 (D) ( 6)
/ 5
28. A convex lens of focal length 40 cm. is in contact with a concave lens of focal length 25 cm. The
power of the combination is:
(A) – 1.5 D (B) – 6.5 D (C) + 6.5 D (D) + 6.67 D
29. In a young’s double slit experiment the fringe width is 2 × 10 –4 m. If the distance between slits is
halved and the distance between slit and the screen is doubled, then the fringe width is:
(A) 2 × 10 –4 m (B) 1 × 10 –4 m (C) 0.5 × 10 –4 m (D) 8 × 10 –4 m
30. A ray of light from denser medium strikes a raser medium at an angle of incidence i. The reflected
and refracted rays make an angle of 90º with each other. The angles of reflection and refraction are r
and r′ . The critical angle is:
(A) sin –1 (cot r) (B) sin –1 (tan i) (C) sin –1 (tan r′ ) (D) sin –1 (sin i)
31. If the angle ‘A’ of the prism is small and D is the angle of minimum deviation, Then:
(A) D = ( μ + 1) A (B) D = ( μ – 1) A (C) μ D = A + 1 (D) μ A = D + 1
32. Angular momentum (L) and radius (r) of a hydrogen atom are related as:
(A) L r = constant (B) L r 2 = constant
(C) L r –1/2 = constant (D) L r 4 = constant
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33.
β rays emitted by a radioactive material are:
(A) Electromagnetic radiations
(B) The electrons orbiting around the nucleus
(C) Charged particles emitted by the nucleus
(D) Neutral particles
34. The wavelength of first line of Lyman series of hydrogen is 1216 Å. The wavelength of second
member of Balmer series would be:
2 3
(A) 304 Å (B) 4864Å (C) × 1216 Å (D) × 1216 Å
3
2
35. The penetrating power of X-rays increases with the:
(A) Increase in its velocity (B) Decrease in its velocity
(C) Increase in its frequency (D) Increase in its intensity
36. In the reaction represented by:
zX A → z–2Y A–4 → z–2Y A–4 → Z–1K A–4 The decays in the sequence are :
(A)
α , β , γ (B) β , γ , α
(C) γ , α , β (D) α , γ , β
37. The expression for threshold wavelength is for φ work function:
hφ
(A)
c
(B)
c
hφ
38. The atoms of usual semiconductors are :
φ
(C)
hc
hc
(D)
φ
(A) Monovalent (B) Bivalent (C) Tetravalent (D) Trivalent
39. In a p-n junction diode not connected to any circuit:
(A) The potential is the same everywhere
(B) The p-type side is at a higher potential than the n-type side
(C) There is an electric field at the junction directed from the n-side to the p-type side
(D) There is an electric field at the junction directed from the p-type side to the n-type side
40. A magnetic needle is kept in a non-uniform magnetic field. It experiences:
(A) A force and a torque (B) A force but not a torque
(C) A torque but not a force (D) Neither a force nor a torque
41. A copper wire of diameter 1.6 mm carries a current ‘i’. The maximum magnetic field due to this wire
is 5 × 10 –3 T. The value of ‘i’ is:
(A) 40 A (B) 5 A (C) 20 A (D) 2 A
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42. In the circuit shown in figure, potential difference between points A and B is 16 V. The current
passing through 2 Ω resistance will be:
(A) 2.5 A (B) 4.0 A (C) 3.5 A (D) zero
43. A piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 80K. The
resistance of :
(A) Each of them increases
(B) Each of them decreases
(C) Copper increases and germanium decreases
(D) Copper cecreases and germanium increases
L
44. In the circuit shown in figure, R = , switch S is closed at time t = 0. The current through C and
C
L would equal after a time t equal to:
(A) CR (B) CR ln(2) (C)
L
R ln( 2)
(D) LR
45. What will be the reading of the voltmeter across the resistance and ammeter in the circuit shown?
(A) 300V, 2A (B) 800V, 2A (C) 100V, 2A (D) 200V, 2A
46. Two thin long parallel wires separated by a distance b are carrying a current ‘i’ amperes each. The
magnitude of the force per unit length exerted by one wire on the other is:
μ i
b
2
º (A) 2
(B)
i
2 b
2
μ º
π
(C)
μ º i
2π
b
μ i
2π
b
º
(D) 2
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47. A uniform magnetic field j ˆ
B = B0
exists in space. A particle of mass m and charge q is projected
towards negative x-axis with speed v from a point (d, 0, 0). The maximum value of ‘v’ for which the
particle does not hit the y-z plane is:
2Bq
(A)
dm
Bqd
(B)
2m
Bqd
(C)
m
Bq
(D)
2dm
48. A spherical charged conductor has surface charge density σ . The electric field on its surface is E and
electric potential is V. Now the radius of the sphere is halved keeping the charge constant. The new
values of electric field and potential would be:
(A) 2E, 2V (B) 4E, 2V (C) 4E, 4V (D) 2E, 4V
49. Three point charges q, –2q and –2q are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side ‘a’.
The work done by some external force to increase their separation to 2a will be:
(A)
1
4π
∈
0
2q
a
2
(B) Negative (C) Zero (D)
50. A voltmeter with resistance 500 Ω is used to measure the emf of a cell of internal resistance 4 Ω .
The percentage error in the reading of voltmeter will be:
1
4π
∈
(A) 0.2% (B) 0.8% (C) 1.4% (D) 2.2%
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0
3q
a
2

SECTION-B (CHEMISTY)
51. The electronic configuration of elements P, Q, R and S are given below, which element is most
metallic?
(A) P = 2, 8, 4 (B) Q = 2, 8, 8 (C) R = 2, 8, 8, 1 (D) S = 2, 8, 8, 7
52. Carbides of alkaline earth metals react with water to give acetylene except the following.
(A) Calcium Carbide (B) Beryllium Carbide
(C) Strontium Carbide (D) Magnesium Carbide
53. Colloidal particles of soap sol in water is:
(A) Negatively charged (B) Neutral
(C) Positively charged (D) Unpredictable
54. White Vitriol is:
(A) FeSo4 7H2O (B) MgSO4 7H2O (C) ZnSO4 7H2O (D) CuSO4 5H2O
55. Reducing property of SO2 is represented by the following reaction:
(A) 2H2S + SO2 → 3S + 2H2O (B) I2 + SO2 + H2O →
SO + 2I – + 4II +
(C) 3Fe + SO2 → 3FeO + FeS (D) 4Na + 3SO2 → Na2SO3 + Na2S2O3
56. The size of sodium ion is_____________ to its atom:
(A) Larger (B) Smaller
(C) Equal (D) Sometimes larger sometimes smaller
57. The element easiest to reduce is:
(A) Fe (B) Cu (C) Ag (D) Sn
1
58. If the equilibrium constant for the reaction SO2(g) + O2(g) SO3(g) is 4 × 10
2
–3 atm. –1/2 , them
the euilibrium constant for the reaction 2SO3(g) 2SO2(g) + O2 (g) would be:
(A) 250 atm. (B) 4 × 10 3 atm. (C) 0.25 × 10 –4 (D) 6.25 × 10 4
59. Cuprite contains:
(A) Cu2S (B) CuFes
(C) Cu(OH)2 CuCO3
60. The conjugate acid of NH2 – is:
(D) Cu2O
(A) NH3 (B) NH4 + (C) N2H4 (D) NH2OH
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2–
4

61. One molecule of potassium ferrocynide produces .................. ions:
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
62. Which one among the following is weaker than benzoic acid:
63. Picric acid is:
(A) 2 - nitrophenol (B) 4 - nitrophenol
(C) 2, 6 - dinitrophenol (D) 2, 4, 6 - trinitrophenol
64. n – hexzdecane has cetane number:
(A) 90 (B) 100 (C) 110 (D) Zero
65. When phenol is distilled with zinc dust, the main product is:
(A) Diphenyl (B) Phenolphthalein (C) Benzaldehyde (D) Benzene
66. tropy of vaporization of water at 100ºC will be:
(A) 20.0 cals mol –1 k –1 (B) 24.0 cals mol –1 k –1
(C) 26.0 cals mol –1 k –1 (D) 28.0 cals mol –1 k –1
67. An isotope of a parent element is produced with the emission of following :
(A) One α - and one β - particle (B) One α - and two β - particle
(C) Two α - and one β - particle (D) Two α - and two β - particle
68. Which of the following compound will react with NaHCO3 solution to give sodium salt and CO2:
(A) Phenol (B) n-hexanol (C) Acetic acid (D) Acetaldehyde
69. Glycerine boils at 290ºC with slight decomposition. Impure glycerine can be purified by the
following:
(A) Simple distillation (B) Steam distillation
(C) Vacuum distillation (D) Fractional distillation
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70. Buna – S rubber is a copolymer of:
(A) Butadiene and styrene (B) Isobutylene and styrene
(C) Isoprene and styrene (D) Styrene and butene
71. Most important energy carrier in living cells is:
(A) ADP (B) TTP (C) ATP (D) GTP
72. Chlorobenzene can be prepared by reacting aniline with following:
(A) Hydrochloric acid
(B) Cuprous chloride and hydrochloric acid
(C) Chlorine in the presence of anhydrous alluminium heating
(D) Nitrous acid followed by heating with cuprous chloride
73. When acetamide is hydrolyzed by boiling with acid, the obtained product is:
(A) Ethyl amine (B) Ethyl alcohol (C) Acetic acid (D) Acetaldehyde
74. Which of the following contains nitrogen:
(A) Teflon (B) Nylon (C) Terylene (D) PVC
75. To protect iron against corrosion the most durable metal plating is :
(A) Nickel plating (B) Tin plating (C) Copper plating (D) Zinc plating
76. An ion has a charge of –1. It has eighteen electrons and twenty neutrons. Its mass number is:
(A) 17 (B) 37 (C) 18 (D) 38
77. Wave nature of electron was shown experimentally by:
(A) Bohr (B) De-Broglie
(C) Davison and Germer (D) Schrodinger
78. The bonds present in N2O4 are:
(A) Only ionic (B) Only covalent
(C) Covalent and coordinate (D) Ionic and coordinate
79. Which of the following molecule has unpaired electrons in antibonding molecular orbital?
(A) O2 (B) N2 (C) C2 (D) B2
80. According to VSEPR theory, the geometry of the molecule OF2 would be:
(A) Linear (B) Square planer (C) Tetrahedral (D) Octahedral
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81. Which of the following 0.1 M aqueous solutions will have the lowest freezing point:
(A) Potassium sulphate (B) Sodium chloride
(C) Urea (D) Glucose
82. Which of the following colligative properties can provide molar mass of proteins with greater
precision:
(A) Relative lowering of vapour pressure (B) Elevation in boiling point
(C) Depression in freezing point (D) Osmotic pressure
83. The number of nearest neighbour particles around each particle in a face centred cubic lattice is:
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 12
84. Which of the following dimensions of a unit cell represent a cubic unit:
(A) a = b = c ; α = β = γ = 90º (B) a = b = c ; α = β = γ = 90º ≠ γ
(C) a = b ≠ c ; α = γ = 90º (D) a ≠ b ≠ c ; α ≠ β ≠ γ
N
85. 0.16g of a dibasic acid required 25 ml of NaOH solution for complete neutralization. The
10
molecular weight of acid is:
(A) 32 (B) 64 (C) 128 (D) 256
86. Which of the following compound will show geometrical isomerism:
(A) 1 – methyl propene (B) Propane
(C) 1 – phenyl propene (D) 2 – methyl – 2- butene
87. For a hypothetical reaction A + B → products
The rate law is, R = R [A]º [B];
The order of reaction is:
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 1.5 (D) Zero
88. Acetylene gives:
(A) White precipitate with AgNO3 and red precipitate with Cu2Cl2
(B) White precipitate with Cu2Cl2 and red precipitate with AgNO3
(C) White precipitate with both
(D) Red precipitate with both
89.
5
The enthalpy change for the reaction C2H2(g) + O2(g) →
2
2CO2(g)+ H2O(g) is known as enthalpy of:
(A) Formation (B) Fusion (C) Vaporization (D) Combustion
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90. The free energy for a reversible reaction at equilibrium is :
(A) Negative (B) Positive
(C) Zero (D) Either positive of negative but not zero
91. When a reaction proceeds in a sequence of steps, the overall order of reaction is determined by:
(A) Slowest step (B) Fastest step
(C) Sum of rate of all steps (D) Molecularity of all steps
92. For the reaction 2N2(g) 4NO2(g) + O2(g) Which of the following facts holds good?
(A) Kp = Ke (B) Kp > Ke (C) Kp < Ke
(D) Kp and Ke can not be correlated unless the pressure is not given
93. 64g of an organic compound contains 24g carbon, 8g hydrogen and rest oxygen. The empirical
formula of compound is:
(A) CH2O (B) C2H4O (C) CH4O (D) C2H8O2
94. An As2S3 sol carries negative charge. The maximum precipitating power for this sol is possessed by:
(A) CACl2 (B) AlCl2 (C) K2SO4 (D) Na3PO4
95. A group of atoms can function as a ligand only when:
(A) It is a small molecule (B) It has an unshared electron pair
(C) It is a negatively charged ion (D) It is a positively charged ion
96. The pH of 10 –8 molar solution of HCl in water is:
(A) 8 (B) 6 (C) Between 7 and 8 (D) Between 6 and 7
97. Which of the following ions will give a colourless aqueous solution:
(A) Ni 2+ (B) CO 2+ (C) Cu2 2+ (D) Fe 2+
98. Which of the following cations has maximum unpaired electron?
(A) Mn 2+ (B) Fe 2+ (C) CO 2+ (D) Ni 2+
99. Which of the following reaction does not take place at cathode:
(A) Ag + = e – → Ag (B) Cl – → Cl + e – (C) H + + e – → H (D) Cu 2+ + 2e – → Cu
100. If No and N are the number of radioactive particles at time t = 0 and t = t, then:
(A)
(C)
1 No
λ = log
(B)
t N
2.
303
λ = log
t
t No
2.
303 No
λ = log
(D) λ = log
2.
303 N
t N
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N
No

101. Synapsis is a characteristic of
SECTION-C (BOTANY)
(A) leptotene (B) zygotene (C) pachytene (D) diplotene
102. The stage of meiosis in which chiasmata are formed, is known as
(A) metaphase (B) anaphase (C) telophase (D) prophase
103. The division of centromere in meiosis takes place during
(A) anaphase I (B) metaphase II (C) anaphase II (D) metaphase II
104. The chromosomes appear as beaded structure during
(A) leptotene (B) pachytene (C) diakinesis (D) telophase I
105. Who introduced the term ‘mitosis’
(A) Flemming (B) Altman (C) Farmer (D) Moore
106. Clover phyllody is caused by
(A) Spirochaetes (B) Protoplasts (C) Spheroplasts (D) Mycoplasmas
107. Which cell inclusions are found in mycoplasmas, spirochaetes and rickettsias?
(A) DNA (B) RNA (C) ribosomes (D) all of these
108. Transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another by a virus is called
(A) transduction (B) transformation (C) conjugation (D) lysogeny
109. Which of the following is a common bacterial disease?
(A) small pox (B) influenza (C) T.B. (D) rabies
110. Which of the following is called milk bacterium
(A) lactobacillus (B) acetobactor (C) diplobacillus (D) streptobacillus
111. Which organism lacks archegonium
(A) funaria (B) pteris (C) cycas (D) spirogyra
112. Which of the following plants has the largest gametophyte
(A) selaginella (B) pinus (C) oryza (D) funaria
113. The microscpore of selaginella may be as small as
(A) 5 μ (B) 15 μ (C) 1.5 μ (D) S μ
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114. Which species of pinus produces chilgoza
(A) P. wallichiana (B) P. insularis (C) P. gerardiana (D) P. roxburgic
115. Which is the smallest unit of classification
(A) family (B) order (C) genus (D) species
116. The generic name of Mango is
(A) Mangifera indica (B) Indica (C) Mangifera (D) Indica Mangifera
117. Quantasomes are found in
(A) mitochondria (B) chloroplasts (C) nucleus (D) lysosome
118. What is the proportion of lipids in chloroplasts
(A) 5-10% (B) 40-50% (C) 1-2% (D) 20-30%
119. The principal cation in alkaline soil is
(A) Na + (B) K + (C) Ca 2+ (D) either of these
120. What is VAM
(A) endomycorhizae (B) ectomycorhizae (C) both (D) none
121. Optimum temperature for photosynthesis is
(A) 10-15ºC (B) 20-25ºC (C) 25-30ºC (D) 35-40ºC
122. The rate of photosynthesis in maximum in
(A) green light (B) blue light (C) red light (D) far-red light
123. The red colour of tomato is due to
(A) β – carotene (B) δ – carotene (C) lycopene (D) phytotene
124. During respiration, pyruvic acid is formed by
(A) glycolysis (B) Kreb cycle (C) TCA cycle (D) none of the above
125. RQ (respiratory quotient) value is less than 1 in
(A) proteins (B) carbohydrates (C) organic acids (D) none of the above
126. Which wavelength of light is responsible for best flowering
(A) red light (B) blue light (C) green light (D) day light
127. Which hormone is responsible for vernalization
(A) florigen (B) colchicines (C) abcissin (D) vernalin
128. A fertile soil is likely to have a pH value of
(A) 3 – 4 (B) 8 – 9 (C) 6 – 7 (D) 10 – 11
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129. Ecosystem creates
(A) food chain (B) food web (C) both (D) none
130. Ribose is a
(A) monosaccharide (B) disaccharide (C) polysaccharide (D) none
131. Formation of m-RNA from DNA is called
(A) translation (B) transformation (C) transduction (D) transcription
132. Genes are made up of
(A) carbohydrates (B) fats (C) proteins (D) nucleic acids
133. The ‘Central Dogma’ was proposed by
(A) Crick (B) Watson (C) Temin (D) Temin and Baltimore
134. Morphine is extracted from
(A) Cinchona officinalis (B) Papaver somniferum
(C) Rauwolfia serpentina (D) Mangifera indica
135. ‘Reserpine’ drug is obtained from
(A) Rauwolfia serpentina (B) Withania somnifera
(C) Atropa belladona (D) Papaver somniferum
136. “Krishna” and “Jaya” are varieties of
(A) maize (B) wheat (C) rice (D) barley
137. In India, litchi is grown in
(A) Maharashtra (B) Bihar (C) Haryana (D) Punjab
138. Which of the following is a fungicide
(A) DDT (B) Bordeaux mixture
(C) 2, 4-D (D) DCMU
139. Minimata disease is caused due to
(A) lead (B) cyanide (C) potassium (D) mercury
140. Most harmful pesticide is
(A) PAN (B) DDT (C) 2, 4 D (D) 2, 4 5 T
141. What is lacking in an animal cell
(A) plasmodesmata (B) 80s ribosomes (C) centriole (D) all of these
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142. Which of the following is an exception to cell theory
(A) bacteria (B) fungi (C) viruses (D) lichens
143. The unit of cellulose is
(A) glucose (B) fructose (C) mannose (D) galactose
144. What is the chief component of middle lamella
(A) K (B) Ca (C) Mg (D) Na
145. Fluid mosaic model was proposed by
(A) Singer and Nicholson (B) Robert Brown
(C) Watson and Crick (D) Beadle and Tatum
146. Chromosomes are composed of
(A) DNA (B) protein (C) RNA (D) DNA, RNA and protein
147. The total hereditary material outside the chromosome is called as
(A) plasmagene (B) plasmon (C) muton (D) recon
148. The energy releasing reaction in a cell takes place in
(A) mitochondria (B) ribosome (C) cell wall (D) plastid
149. The term lipochondria was suggested for
(A) mitochondria (B) ER (C) golgicomplex (D) all of these
150. Mitochondria are absent in
(A) yeast (B) fungi (C) bacteria (D) green algae
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SECTION-D (ZOOLOGY)
151. The yellowish fluid colostrum has abundant antibodies to protect the in infant.
(A) Ig A (B) Ig M (C) Ig G (D) Ig E
152. Which place is famous for hosting thousand of migrating birds coming from Siberia in every winter ?
(A) Kanha National Park, Balaghat, Madhya Pradesh
(B) Keoladev National Park, Bharatpur, Rajasthan
(C) Kaji Ranga National Park, Assam.
(D) Corbet National Park, Nainital, Uttaranchal
153. Gel-Electrophoresis Unit separates the DNA according to their____
(A) Charge (B) Concentration (C) pH (D) Size
154. Maturation of genetically engineered proinsulin into insulin takes place after:
(A) Joining of C – peptide (B) Removal of C peptide
(C) Removal of Disulphide bridge (D) All of the above
155. Bionagnification of DDT caused decline in Bird population by:
(A) Bringing disturbance in calcium metabolism
(B) Thinning of egg shell
(C) Premature breaking of eggs.
(D) All of the above
156. “ Evil Quartet “ is related with :
(A) loss of Biodiversity (B) Loss of Alien Species
(C) Loss of Standing crop (D) Loss of climax community
157. Discoblastula found in:
(A) Echinoderms and amphioxus (B) Reptiles, Birds and fishes
(C) Annelids, Molluscs and Nemertens (D) Insects
158. Analogous organs have :
(A) Different origin but similar functions. (B) Common origin and similar functions.
(C) Different origin and different functions (D) Common origin and but different function.
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159. About how many sperms ejaculates by human male during a coitus:
(A) 100 – 200 million (B) 200 – 300 million
(C) 300 – 400 million (D) 400 – 500 million
160. The science of ageing is often referred to as:
(A) Gerontology (B) Phenology (C) Angiology (D) Aetiology
161. Flagellated collar cells (choanocytes) is the characteristics of:
(A) Cnidaria (B) Arthropoda (C) Porifera (D) None of the above
162. Which is not bird?
(A) Columba (B) Testudo (C) Pavo (D) Struthio
163. The animal of which phylum are called acoelomates?
(A) Annelida (B) Mollusca\ (C) Platyhelminthes (D) Echinodermata
164. Water vascular system is the distinctive feature of phylum:
(A) Mollusca (B) Echinodermata (C) Annelida (D) Hemichordata
165. Placoid scales are the characteristic feature of the class:
(A) Cyclostomata (B) Chondrichthyes (C) Osteichthyes (D) Amphibia
166. Which is known as barrier layer:
(A) Stratum corneum (B) Stratum lucidum
(C) Stratum granulosum (D) Stratum spinosum
167. Which forms the strong inextensible attachment of a skeletal muscle to a bone:
(A) Tendon (B) Ligament
(C) Areolar Connective tissue (D) Adipose tissue
168. Which of the following fibre possesses nodes of Ranvier:
(A) Medullated nerve fibre (B) Non medullated nerve fibre
(C) Muscle fibres (D) Medullated and non medullated nerve fibres
169. Which transgenic animal have been given human genes for organ transplantation into humans
without risk of rejection:
(A) Cow (B) Sheep (C) Goat (D) Pig
170. Chipko movement is concerned with:
(A) Project crocodile (B) Wild life Management
(C) Protection of Trees (D) Plant breeding
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171. The dental formula (arrangement of teeth) of an adult human is represented as:
2 1 2 3
3 1 3 1
(A) I C PM M × 2
(B) I C PM M × 2
2 1 2 3
3 1 2 1
3 1 4 2
3 1 4 3
(C) I C PM M × 2
(D) I C PM M × 2
3 1 4 3
3 1 4 3
172. Gastric juice contains enzymes:
(A) Pepsin, Lipase, Rennin (B) Trypsin, Lipase, Rennin
(C) Trypsin, Pepsin, Lipase (D) Trypsin, pepsin, Rennin
173. What percentage of CO2 is transported by RBC’s:
(A) 70% (B) 20 – 25% (C) 97% (D) 7%
174. Which blood group of human being is devoid of antibodies:
(A) A (B) B (C) AB (D) O
175. The QRS complex of a standard ECG represents the:
(A) Excitation or Depolarisation of the Atria:
(B) Depolarisation of the ventricles
(C) Repolarisation of the ventricles
(D) None of the above
176. Second Heart sound is:
(A) “Lub” during closure of semilunar valves
(B) ‘Lub’ during closure of Atrioventricular valves
(C) ‘Dub’ during closure of Atrioventricular valves
(D) ‘Dub’ during closure of Semilunar valves
177. A healthy adult human excrete out (on an average) grams of urea per day:
(A) 25 – 30 gm. (B) 40 – 50 gm. (C) 10 – 15 gm. (D) None of the above
178. Which type of joint is characterised by the presence of a fluid filled cavity and plays a significant
role in locomotion:
(A) Fibrous joints (B) Cartilaginous joints
(C) Synovial joints (D) None of the above
179. Major protein in the thick filaments of skeletal muscle fibre is:
(A) Myosin (B) Actin (C) Tropomyosin (D) Troponin
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180. Medulla oblongata contain centres that control:
(A) Respiration (B) Cardio vascular reflexes
(C) Gastric secretions (D) All of the above
181. Which hormone plays a important role in the regulation of diurnal rhythm of our body:
(A) Melatonin (B) Thymosins (C) Glucagon (D) Oxytocin
182. Hyposecretion of thyroid during pregnancy causes:
(A) Goitre (B) Cretinism (C) Hypoglycemia (D) Diabetes mellitus
183. The menstrual phase is followed by:
(A) Luteal phase or Secretory phase (B) Follicular phase
(C) Rertilization (D) Implantation
184. Which hormone is produced in women only during pregnancy:
(A) Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)
(B) Human Placental Lactogen (HPL)
(C) Relaxin
(D) All of the above
185. “Saheli” – a new oral contraceptive for the females, was developed by the scientists at which
institute:
(A) C.D.R.I. – Lucknow (B) I.I.Sc. – Bangore
(C) C.S.I.R. – New Delhi (D) I.C.M.R. – New Delhi
186. Is Drosophila female has a pair of chromosomes:
(A) Z Z (B) X X (C) X Y (D) Z W
187. Stiffing is related with:
(A) Sericulture (B) Apiculture (C) Lacculture (D) Fishery
188. Which is not true for Red Fibres:
(A) Muscle contains a red coloured oxygen storing pigment
(B) Muscle contains plenty of Mitochondria
(C) These muscles also called aerobic muscles
(D) Amount of Sarcoplasmic reticulum is high in it
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189. Pellagra is caused by the deficiency of which Vitamin:
(A) B1 / Thiamine (B) B12 / Cyano Cobalamine
(C) Niacin / Nicotinic Acid (D) D / Calciferol
190. Hypokalemia is caused by the deficiency of which mineral:
(A) Calcium (B) Sodium (C) Potassium (D) Phosphorus
191. In human 45 Chromosomes / Single X / XO abnormality causes:
(A) Down’s syndrome (B) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(C) Turner’s syndrome (D) Edward’s syndrome
192. Which one of the following is caused the “Oriental Sore”:
(A) Trypanosoma gambiense (B) Leishmania bransiliensis
(C) Leishmania cruzi (D) Leishmania tropica
193. Which one of the following is the high quality pearl producing species:
(A) Pinctada roding (B) Placuna blacenta
(C) Pinctade margaritifera (D) Pinctada maxima
194. Human placenta is:
(A) Haemochorial (B) Syndesmochorial
(C) Yolk Sac (D) Haemoendothelial
195. Which infective stage of the Plasmodium contained by the female Anopheles that transfer into
human body and causes malaria:
(A) Mesozoites (B) Gametocyte (C) Sporozoite (D) Schizont
196. Rods are sensitive to:
(A) Dim light (B) High intensity light
(C) Colour perception (D) All the above
197. Metastasis is:
(A) Rapid division in cancer cells (B) Spread of cancer cells to new sites
(C) Regeneration of cancer cells (D) All the above
198. Cocaine interferes with which neurotransmitter transportation:
(A) Serotonin (B) Epinephrine (C) Dopamine (D) Acetyl choline
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199. People, who are at the high risk of getting HIV infection:
(A) Individuals who have multiple sexual partners
(B) Drug addicts who take drugs intravenously
(C) Individuals who require repeated blood transfusions
(D) All of the above
200. Interferons are:
(A) Protein products of macrophases, which destroy microbes
(B) Protein secreted by Virus-infected cells which protect non-infected cells from further viral
infection
(C) Allergens
(D) Antibody molecules
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